Acceleration acting on a block lying on a wedge (non-inertial frame)

Click For Summary
The discussion revolves around understanding the acceleration of a block on a wedge from both inertial and non-inertial frames. Observers on the wedge perceive no acceleration of the block, while those in an inertial frame see it moving horizontally. When the wedge accelerates to the right, a fictitious force acts on the block in the non-inertial frame, preventing it from sliding down. The block's acceleration in the inertial frame includes both horizontal and vertical components, while in the non-inertial frame, it primarily shows horizontal acceleration. Ultimately, the block's acceleration is a combination of its motion relative to the wedge and the wedge's own acceleration.
Like Tony Stark
Messages
182
Reaction score
6
Homework Statement
Consider this situation: there's a wedge, where a block is lying on it. There's no friction. A horizontal acceleration is applied to the wedge. This acceleration may cause three cases: the block doesn't move with respect to the wedge; the block slides up; the block slides down.
Relevant Equations
Newton's equation
I have some difficulties trying to understand non-inertial frames.

I have problems to notice the acceleration in these cases, from an inertial reference frame and from non inertial refrence frame.

Consider the first case, if I'm on the wedge, I see that the block doesn't move so there's no acceleration, all the forces add up to zero. But what about if I'm on an inertial frame? Which acceleration would the block have? Just horizontal acceleration, right? (Because I would see that it is moving to the right, so if I consider non inclined axis, the acceleration would be just in ##x##)

And what about the case where it is sliding up? From the non inertial frame, I would see just ##x## acceleration (if I consider inclined axis). And what if I saw it from the ground? What components would it have?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Say the contact is frictionless. If the wedge slides to the right with acceleration ##\vec a## in the inertial frame, an observer in the non-inertial frame will see the block experience a fictitious force ##-m\vec a##. If the block is at rest relative to the wedge in the non-inertial frame, the observer will conclude that the fictitious force is just enough to keep the block from sliding down. This situation is equivalent to the one in which the block is not accelerating in an inertial problem, but is prevented from sliding down by a real force, e.g. a finger, holding it in place. Sliding up or sliding down means that the fictitious (or real) force is greater or less than what is needed to keep the block from sliding.
 
kuruman said:
Say the contact is frictionless. If the wedge slides to the right with acceleration ##\vec a## in the inertial frame, an observer in the non-inertial frame will see the block experience a fictitious force ##-m\vec a##. If the block is at rest relative to the wedge in the non-inertial frame, the observer will conclude that the fictitious force is just enough to keep the block from sliding down. This situation is equivalent to the one in which the block is not accelerating in an inertial problem, but is prevented from sliding down by a real force, e.g. a finger, holding it in place. Sliding up or sliding down means that the fictitious (or real) force is greater or less than what is needed to keep the block from sliding.
Yes, I understand that. But I don't understand the acceleration of the block in the second case. From an inertial frame, it will just have ##x## acceleration? Or ##x## and ##y##? And from non inertial? Will it have just ##x## acceleration?
 
Like Tony Stark said:
Yes, I understand that. But I don't understand the acceleration of the block in the second case. From an inertial frame, it will just have ##x## acceleration? Or ##x## and ##y##? And from non inertial? Will it have just ##x## acceleration?
It will have the acceleration you found in the wedge frame of reference plus the acceleration of the wedge.
 
  • Like
Likes Like Tony Stark
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 37 ·
2
Replies
37
Views
2K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
3K
Replies
19
Views
3K
Replies
13
Views
3K
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
1K