Affine Varieties - Single Points and maximal ideals

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In Dummit and Foote Chapter 15, Section 15.3: Radicals and Affine Varieties on page 679 we find the following definition of affine variety: (see attachment)

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Definition. A nonempty affine algebraic set [itex]V[/itex] is called irreducible if it cannot be written as [itex]V = V_1 \cup V_2[/itex] where [itex]V_1[/itex] and [itex]V_2[/itex] are proper algebraic sets in [itex]V[/itex].

An irreducible affine algebraic set is called an affine variety.

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Dummit and Foote then prove the following results:

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Proposition 17. The affine algebraic set [itex]V[/itex] is irreducible if and only if [itex]\mathcal{I}(V)[/itex] is a prime ideal.

Corollary 18. The affine algebraic set [itex]V[/itex] is a variety if and only if its coordinate ring [itex]k[V][/itex] is an integral domain.

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Then in Example 1 on page 681 (see attachment) D&F write:

"Single points in [itex]\mathbb{A}^n[/itex] are affine varieties since their corresponding ideals in [itex]k[A^n][/itex] are maximal ideals."

I do not follow this reasoning.

Can someone please explain why the fact that ideals in [itex]k[A^n][/itex] that correspond to single points are maximal

imply that single points in [itex]A^n[/itex] are affine varieties.

Presumably Proposition 17 and Corollary 18 are involved but I cannot see the link.

I would appreciate some help.

Peter
 

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Maximal ideals are always prime.
 
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Thanks R136a1

Was looking for that relationship in D&F - just found it in D&F ch 7 page 256 ...

Corollary 14: Assume R is commutative. Every maximal ideal of R is a prime ideal

Mind you, it was your post got me looking again :-)

Thanks again.

Peter