Affine Algebraic Sets - Properties of the map I - Dummit and Foote, page 661

In summary: A}^1$) so we can only hope that these maps can make a bijection between carefully chosen subsets of $\mathbb{A}^n$ and carefully chosen ideals of $k[x_1\ldots,x_n]$.
  • #1
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I am trying to gain an understanding of the basics of elementary algebraic geometry and am reading Dummit and Foote Chapter 15: Commutative Rings and Algebraic Geometry ...

At present I am focused on Section 15.1 Noetherian Rings and Affine Algebraic Sets ... ...

I need someone to help me to fully understand the reasoning/analysis following the listing of some properties of \(\displaystyle \mathcal{I}\) ... in particular the reasoning pertaining to property (10) ... ...

The relevant text from D&F page 661 is as follows:View attachment 4828In the above text we see the following statement by D&F:

" ... ... The last relation shows the maps \(\displaystyle \mathcal{Z}\) and \(\displaystyle \mathcal{I}\) act as inverses of each other provided one restricts to the collection of affine algebraic sets \(\displaystyle V = \mathcal{Z} (I) \text{ in } \mathbb{A}^n\) and to the set of ideals in \(\displaystyle k [ \mathbb{A}^n ]\) of the form \(\displaystyle \mathcal{I} (V)\) ... ... "I cannot see why we have to restrict to ideals in \(\displaystyle k [ \mathbb{A}^n ]\) of the form \(\displaystyle \mathcal{I} (V)\) when property 10 is stated in terms of ideals \(\displaystyle I = \mathcal{I} (A)\) where \(\displaystyle A\) is an arbitrary subset of \(\displaystyle \mathbb{A}^n\) ... and hence NOT restricted to an affine algebraic set \(\displaystyle V\) ... ... ?

Can someone please help me to clarify this issue/problem ... ?

Peter
***EDIT***

To ensure MHB readers understand the notation and context of the above post I am providing D&F's definitions of \(\displaystyle \mathcal{Z}\) and \(\displaystyle \mathcal{I}\), as follows:View attachment 4829
View attachment 4830View attachment 4831
 
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  • #2
Note that if I take an arbitrary subset \(\displaystyle A \subseteq \mathbb{A}^n\), the zeroes of any polynomial vanishing on all of \(\displaystyle A\) may be much larger than the set \(\displaystyle A\). Let's look at an example: let \(\displaystyle k = \mathbb{C}\) and \(\displaystyle A = \mathbb{Z} \subseteq \mathbb{A}^1\). Then for a polynomial \(\displaystyle f \in \mathbb{C}[x]\) to be in \(\displaystyle \mathcal{I}(A)\), $f(a) = 0$ for every integer $a$. But the only polynomial in 1 variable with infinitely many zeroes is the zero polynomial. Hence $\mathcal{I}(A) = \{0\}$. We note in this case, since everything is a zero of the zero polynomial, $\mathcal{Z}(\mathcal{I}(A)) = \mathcal{Z}(\{0\}) = \mathbb{A}^1$.

In effect, $\mathcal{Z}(\mathcal{I}(A))$ fills in all of the missing parts of $A$ to give you the smallest algebraic set containing the original $A$. The closure, if you will.

By a similar token, $\mathcal{I}(\mathcal{Z}(S))$ takes an arbitrary subset $S \subseteq k[x_1,\ldots,x_n]$ and returns a certain kind of ideal of $k[x_1,\ldots,x_n]$.

Let's look at a quick example: let $S = \{x^2\} \subseteq k[x]$. Then $\mathcal{Z}(\{x^2\})$ is the set of points of $\mathbb{A}^1$ for which $x^2$ evaluates to zero. Clearly this is the single point $0$. Hence $\mathcal{Z}(\{x^2\}) = \{0\}$. Now $\mathcal{I}(\mathcal{Z}(\{x^2\})) = \mathcal{I}(\{0\})$, but any function divisible by $x$ has $0$ as a root (and these are all such functions), hence we have $\mathcal{I}(\mathcal{Z}(\{x^2\})) = xk[x] = (x)$. So we started with the single element $x^2$ and we got the entire ideal generated by $x$.
In general, both $\mathcal{Z}(\mathcal{I}(-))$ and $\mathcal{I}(\mathcal{Z}(-))$ are both processes which enlarge sets. In particular, both the maps $\mathcal{Z}(-)$ and $\mathcal{I}(-)$ are not injective in general (we've effectively given examples in the case of $\mathbb{A}^1$) so we can only hope that these maps can make a bijection between carefully chosen subsets of $\mathbb{A}^n$ and carefully chosen ideals of $k[x_1\ldots,x_n]$. The content of D&F's claim is that we do, indeed, get the bijection we're hoping for.
 
  • #3
Turgul said:
Note that if I take an arbitrary subset \(\displaystyle A \subseteq \mathbb{A}^n\), the zeroes of any polynomial vanishing on all of \(\displaystyle A\) may be much larger than the set \(\displaystyle A\). Let's look at an example: let \(\displaystyle k = \mathbb{C}\) and \(\displaystyle A = \mathbb{Z} \subseteq \mathbb{A}^1\). Then for a polynomial \(\displaystyle f \in \mathbb{C}[x]\) to be in \(\displaystyle \mathcal{I}(A)\), $f(a) = 0$ for every integer $a$. But the only polynomial in 1 variable with infinitely many zeroes is the zero polynomial. Hence $\mathcal{I}(A) = \{0\}$. We note in this case, since everything is a zero of the zero polynomial, $\mathcal{Z}(\mathcal{I}(A)) = \mathcal{Z}(\{0\}) = \mathbb{A}^1$.

In effect, $\mathcal{Z}(\mathcal{I}(A))$ fills in all of the missing parts of $A$ to give you the smallest algebraic set containing the original $A$. The closure, if you will.

By a similar token, $\mathcal{I}(\mathcal{Z}(S))$ takes an arbitrary subset $S \subseteq k[x_1,\ldots,x_n]$ and returns a certain kind of ideal of $k[x_1,\ldots,x_n]$.

Let's look at a quick example: let $S = \{x^2\} \subseteq k[x]$. Then $\mathcal{Z}(\{x^2\})$ is the set of points of $\mathbb{A}^1$ for which $x^2$ evaluates to zero. Clearly this is the single point $0$. Hence $\mathcal{Z}(\{x^2\}) = \{0\}$. Now $\mathcal{I}(\mathcal{Z}(\{x^2\})) = \mathcal{I}(\{0\})$, but any function divisible by $x$ has $0$ as a root (and these are all such functions), hence we have $\mathcal{I}(\mathcal{Z}(\{x^2\})) = xk[x] = (x)$. So we started with the single element $x^2$ and we got the entire ideal generated by $x$.
In general, both $\mathcal{Z}(\mathcal{I}(-))$ and $\mathcal{I}(\mathcal{Z}(-))$ are both processes which enlarge sets. In particular, both the maps $\mathcal{Z}(-)$ and $\mathcal{I}(-)$ are not injective in general (we've effectively given examples in the case of $\mathbb{A}^1$) so we can only hope that these maps can make a bijection between carefully chosen subsets of $\mathbb{A}^n$ and carefully chosen ideals of $k[x_1\ldots,x_n]$. The content of D&F's claim is that we do, indeed, get the bijection we're hoping for.
Thanks so much for the help, Turgul ... I had nearly given up on the elements of basic algebraic geometry ... much obliged for the help ...

... will be working through your post carefully, shortly

Thanks again,

Peter
 
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1. What is an affine algebraic set?

An affine algebraic set is a subset of an affine space that is defined by a system of polynomial equations. These equations are typically in the form of f(x1, ..., xn) = 0, where f is a polynomial in n variables.

2. What are some properties of the map I in Dummit and Foote?

The map I in Dummit and Foote refers to the ideal generated by a set of polynomials. Some properties of this map include: it is a homomorphism, it preserves addition and multiplication, and it maps the zero ideal to the zero ideal.

3. How is the map I related to affine algebraic sets?

The map I is used to define affine algebraic sets. The zero set of an ideal generated by a set of polynomials is an affine algebraic set. Conversely, given an affine algebraic set, the ideal of polynomials that vanish on that set is generated by the set of polynomials defining the set.

4. Can the map I be extended to other algebraic structures?

Yes, the map I can be extended to other algebraic structures such as rings and modules. In these cases, it is known as the ideal map. It is a useful tool for studying the structure and properties of these algebraic objects.

5. How does the map I relate to the Nullstellensatz theorem?

The map I is closely related to the Nullstellensatz theorem, which states that there is a one-to-one correspondence between radical ideals and affine algebraic sets. The map I plays a crucial role in this theorem, as it maps an ideal to the corresponding affine algebraic set and vice versa.

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