Hans de Vries said:
0.00115869 = muon / Z mass ratio
0.00115965 = electron magnetic anomaly
Now whatever, what we can say is that the magnetic
anomaly is totally dominated by photon (spin 1) interactions
coming from the first order \alpha/2\pi term while the difference
of the muon and electron anomaly is almost entirely vacuum
polarization interaction (spin 1/2), the result of virtual electrons
and muons.
Hmm but at second order of alpha, there is a vacuum polarisation term due to pairs electron positron, and it is not negligible. It is 0.015687 \alpha^2/\pi^2, ie .0000000846.
Er, wait... let's supposse this term is not in your ratio. Add it!
0.0011586922+.0000000846=.0011587768
Ok it does not seem very much of an improvement. But if we add also my term (1/2) (mm/mW)^2 we have
0.0011586922+.0000000846+.0000008608=.0011596376
to be compared with experimental 0.0011596521. No bad.
I would conclude that our series (well, two terms) on masses does not approach to the experimental magnetic moment, but to the two loop QED (or full electroweak, does not matter) vertex correction, excluding the vacuum polarisation loop. On first examination, it seems that this loop is recovered when we introduce the product of electron and tau masses, but I have not examined the expansion for this anomalous moment.
Just for the record, the two loop correction for electron is 0.5 a/pi - 0.3284794 (a/pi)^2. In our case, disregarding the vacuum polarisation amounts to a second term coefficient -.3441636 We have
a_e^{\mbox{2qed-v.p.}}=.00115955280
{m_\mu \over m_Z}+ \frac12 {m_\mu^2 \over m_W^2}=.001159553
agreement about, well, dammn, it is already inside the experimental error for Z0... if you want, respective to central values it is of Z and W, it is 99.99997%.
If one feels bad about having the 2 m_W^2 in the denominator, you can always use the square of an unknown neutral mass about 114 GeV... the LHC start will wait some time yet.