Alternate expressions of Fourier series formula

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on expressing the Fourier series formula F(t)=\frac{1}{2}a_{0}+\sum^{\infty}_{n=1}(a_{n}cos(nwt)+b_{n}sin(nwt)) in an alternate form F(t)=\frac{1}{2}a_{0}+\sum^{\infty}_{n=1}c_{n}cos(nwt-\phi_{n}). The coefficients c_{n} are related to a_{n} and b_{n} through the equation c_{n}=\frac{a_{n}}{\cos(\phi_{n})}=\frac{b_{n}}{\sin(\phi_{n})}, where \phi_{n} is defined as \phi_{n} = \tan^{-1}\frac{b_{n}}{a_{n}}. The discussion emphasizes that \phi_{n} must be a constant, not a function of time, to maintain the integrity of the Fourier series representation.

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Esran
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Homework Statement



Show that the Fourier series formula F(t)=\frac{1}{2}a_{0}+\sum^{\infty}_{n=1}(a_{n}cos(nwt)+b_{n}sin(nwt)) can be expressed as F(t)=\frac{1}{2}a_{0}+\sum^{\infty}_{n=1}c_{n}cos(nwt-\phi_{n}). Relate the coefficients c_{n} to a_{n} and b_{n}.

Homework Equations



We have the usual equations for the coefficients of a Fourier series.

The Attempt at a Solution



I'm really just checking the integrity of my solution here. I want to be sure I did not misunderstand the nature of \phi_{n} or anything else.

Let n\in Z^{+}. Pick \phi_{n} such that \frac{a_{n}}{cos(\phi_{n})}=\frac{b_{n}}{sin(\phi_{n})}. We know we can do this since we could just choose \phi_{n}=nw_{0}t, where w_{0}=2 \pi f, the fundamental frequency of the Fourier series. Let c_{n}=\frac{a_{n}}{cos(\phi_{n})}=\frac{b_{n}}{sin(\phi_{n})}.

F(t)=\frac{1}{2}a_{0}+\sum^{\infty}_{n=1}(a_{n}cos(nwt)+b_{n}sin(nwt))
F(t)=\frac{1}{2}a_{0}+\sum^{\infty}_{n=1}(c_{n}cos(\phi_{n})cos(nwt)+c_{n}sin(\phi_{n})sin(nwt))
F(t)=\frac{1}{2}a_{0}+\sum^{\infty}_{n=1}(c_{n}cos(nwt-\phi_{n}))

Which completes the problem.
 
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Your proof seems fine, but the one thing I would point out is that φn is supposed to be a constant. So you shouldn't pick φn = nω0t, because that would make the phase constant a linear function of time. Instead, just solve the equation
\frac{a_n}{\cos\phi_n} = \frac{b_n}{\sin\phi_n}
for φn, getting
\phi_n = \tan^{-1}\frac{b_n}{a_n}
(I'll leave the investigation of the case an=0 to you :wink:) Using that value of φn, you can define cn the same way you did, and the rest of the proof should be unchanged.
 
Thanks!
 

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