I want to know why the book says that when ρ>c, there is no current and the magnetic will be zero
The Attempt at a Solution
I was trying to find the magnetic between the gap by using the formula... I've found that the magnetic magnetic field between the outer conductor and the inner one will try to cancel each other...
I think the book shouldn't just say that when ρ>c, there's no current and the field will be zero. It should say that the magnetic field from the inner and the outer conductor will completely cancel each other.
Here is the book: https://www.mediafire.com/?f0cpqvavy1ddl29
PS: The problem is on pages 190-192 of the attached book