Amplitude for fermion-fermion Yukawa scattering

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Suppose that we have that:
[itex]\mathcal{M} = c \bar{u}^{s'}(p') u^s(p) \bar{u}^{r'}(k') u^r(k)[/itex]

For a fermion fermion scattering: [itex]f(k,r)+ f(p,s) \rightarrow f(k',r')+ f(p',s')[/itex]

Now if I want to calculate the polarization summed and averaged squared amplitude:

[itex]\frac{|c|^2}{4} \sum_{r,r',s,s'} \bar{u}^{s'}(p') u^s(p) \bar{u}^{r'}(k') u^r(k) \bar{u}^{r}(k) u^{r'}(k') \bar{u}^{s}(p) u^{s'}(p')[/itex]

In index form I think this can be written:
[itex]\frac{|c|^2}{4} \sum_{r,r',s,s'} \sum_{a,b,c,d} \bar{u}^{s'}(p')_a u^s(p)_a \bar{u}^{r'}(k')_b u^r(k)_b \bar{u}^{r}(k)_c u^{r'}(k')_c \bar{u}^{s}(p)_d u^{s'}(p')_d[/itex]
So I can move the spinors around, no? So that I will finally get:
[itex]\frac{|c|^2}{4} Tr \Big( [p+m][p'+m] \Big) Tr \Big( [k+m][k'+m] \Big)[/itex]?

where the momenta in the trace are in fact slashed...
 
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Also I have one more question concerning this...
When you move the spinors, do you get a - for each commutation?
 
arivero said:
Yukawa?

yes Yukawa...
The expression for the amplitude looks like the case for a very low energetic scalar propagator... So that [itex]c = \frac{1}{q^2-m^2} \rightarrow -\frac{1}{m^2}[/itex]
 
ChrisVer said:
yes Yukawa... [itex]c = \frac{1}{q^2-m^2}[/itex]

Nice

I wonder, then... is it not possible to get a repulsive Yukawa core in Quantum Field Theory?
 
I think all the yukawa couplings have attractive potential only...both for fermion-fermion and antifermion-fermion...
 
ChrisVer said:
I think all the yukawa couplings have attractive potential only...both for fermion-fermion and antifermion-fermion...

Yep, even spin seems to imply atractive potential... what about a massive photon?
 
arivero said:
Yep, even spin seems to imply atractive potential... what about a massive photon?

What about it? It doesn't have a Yukawa coupling because it's a vector boson...?
 
ChrisVer said:
What about it? It doesn't have a Yukawa coupling because it's a vector boson...?
Well, it is not a Yukawa coupling, but can it be approximated by a Yukawa potential? I was wondering how to use QFT to produce a repulsive Yukawa potential. It seems that spin 0 and spin 2 always generate universally attractive potentials when you do the Born approximation.
 
hmmm...I am not entirely sure if that would be the case, but you can always look at what happens with the [itex]W^\pm ,Z^0[/itex] bosons, which are spin 1 and have mass. The reason I say that is that although the Yukawa potential appears always repulsive, the repulsion of the Coulomb potential is a result of the metric [itex]g_{00} = -1[/itex], whereas its attraction is a result of the [itex]\gamma^0[/itex] which exists in the vertex (which doesn't exist for the yukawa). So I think it's because the Lagrangian for the EM (spin-1 particles) comes with the [itex]\gamma^{\mu}[/itex] to keep lorentz invariance (the product [itex]\gamma^{\mu}D_{\mu}[/itex], in contrast to the Yukawa which doesn't need it (you have a scalar propagator).

However I'd try writing:
If you allow a massive [small value] photon, then you can indeed get a Yukawa potential [since the EM potential can be obtained from the Yukawa by sending m to zero]. However instead of using the exponential as it is, you can expand it:
[itex]V= -\frac{g^2}{4 \pi r} e^{-mr} \approx - \frac{g^2}{4 \pi r} + \frac{m g^2}{4 \pi} - \frac{g^2}{8 \pi} m^2 r + \mathcal{O}(m^3)[/itex]

The first term can allow for attractive and repulsive forces, depending on the charges of your particles (practically it's the coulomb potential). The middle term is just a constant term, so it can be neglected so you are left appoximately with:
[itex]V= V_{C} + V_{a}[/itex] with [itex]V_a = - \frac{g^2}{8 \pi} m^2 r[/itex]
I am not quiet sure if this tells us anything, it's a weird result since it implies some confinement. However I'd say that partially it can. It would denote a mass for the photon if such a term could exist, at least for the scalar part (unphysical/ghost) of the photon. What do you think?
 
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ChrisVer said:
Also I have one more question concerning this...
When you move the spinors, do you get a - for each commutation?
No because at that stage you are not dealing with quantum fields, just with matrices and vectors.