Amplitude with Feynman diagrams and gluon propagators

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the calculation of amplitudes using Feynman diagrams and gluon propagators, specifically analyzing the expression involving spinor products and gamma matrices. The key issue identified is the misunderstanding of the cancellation of terms involving the spinor products ##\bar{u}(p) v(p')## and ##\bar{u}(p') v(p)##, which are both zero. The conclusion reached is that the final result simplifies to the expression $$ \bar u(p) \gamma^\nu v(p') $$, indicating a critical step in the calculation process.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Feynman diagrams and their role in quantum field theory.
  • Familiarity with gamma matrices and their properties in particle physics.
  • Knowledge of spinor algebra and the significance of spinor products.
  • Basic concepts of gluon propagators and their applications in quantum chromodynamics (QCD).
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation and properties of gamma matrices in quantum field theory.
  • Learn about the role of spinor products in particle interactions and their implications.
  • Explore advanced topics in quantum chromodynamics, focusing on gluon interactions.
  • Investigate the application of Feynman diagrams in calculating scattering amplitudes.
USEFUL FOR

This discussion is beneficial for theoretical physicists, graduate students in particle physics, and researchers focusing on quantum field theory and quantum chromodynamics.

Aleolomorfo
Messages
70
Reaction score
4
Homework Statement
Let's check that the term with ##\frac{l_\alpha l_\beta}{k^2}## in the following amplitude:
$$ \bar u(p) (-ig_s\gamma^\alpha t^a) \frac{i}{\displaystyle{\not}p+\not k} (-i\gamma^\nu e Q_f) \frac{i}{\displaystyle{\not}p'-\not k} (-ig_s \gamma^\beta t^a) v(p') \frac{i}{k^2} \biggl(-g_{\alpha\beta} + \frac{k_\alpha k_\beta}{k^2}\biggr) (\bar u(p) (-ieQ_f \gamma^\nu) v(p'))^* $$
is zero.
The amplitude comes from the interference of the NLO @ QCD of ##e^+ e^- -> q \bar q##. I have attached the Feynman diagrams.
We consider everything massless.
Relevant Equations
##\displaystyle{\not}p u(p) = m u(p)##
If m = 0 ----> ##\displaystyle{\not}p u(p) = 0##
The term which is relevant for the calculus is:
$$ \bar u(p) \gamma^\alpha \frac{1}{\displaystyle{\not}p+\not k} \gamma^\nu \frac{1}{\displaystyle{\not}p'-\not k} \gamma^\beta v(p') \frac{k_\alpha k_\beta}{k^2} $$
$$ \bar u(p) \displaystyle{\not}k \frac{1}{\displaystyle{\not}p+\not k} \gamma^\nu \frac{1}{\displaystyle{\not}p'-\not k} \displaystyle{\not}k \space v(p') $$
$$ \bar u(p) (\displaystyle{\not}k + \displaystyle{\not}p - \displaystyle{\not}p) \frac{1}{\displaystyle{\not}p+\not k} \gamma^\nu \frac{1}{\displaystyle{\not}p'-\not k} (\displaystyle{\not}k + \displaystyle{\not}p' - \displaystyle{\not}p') v(p') $$
$$ \bar u(p) \biggl(1 - \frac{\displaystyle{\not}p} {\displaystyle{\not}p+\not k}\biggr) \gamma^\nu \biggl(-1 + \frac{\displaystyle{\not}p'} {\displaystyle{\not}p'+\not k}\biggr) v(p') $$
The terms with ##\displaystyle{\not}p'## and ##\displaystyle{\not}p## vanish because of the relations mentioned above and I do not get zero. Where is my mistake?
Thanks in advance!
 

Attachments

Physics news on Phys.org
The mistake is that you are not taking into account the fact that the spinor products ##\bar{u}(p) v(p')## and ##\bar{u}(p') v(p)## are both zero. This means that the terms with ##\displaystyle{\not}p## and ##\displaystyle{\not}p'## do not in fact vanish, but rather cancel each other out. Therefore, the final result is:$$ \bar u(p) \gamma^\nu v(p') $$
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
58
Views
6K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
953
Replies
5
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K