Angular Acceleration: Rod Mass & Angular Accel

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When two rods of the same length but different masses are subjected to the same force at an equal distance from their center, the angular acceleration is determined by their moment of inertia. The lighter rod will have a greater angular acceleration because the torque applied is the same for both rods, given that torque is calculated as the product of force and distance from the pivot point. The discussion highlights that while weight may influence torque, the problem simplifies by assuming only the applied force is acting. Therefore, the moment of inertia, which depends on mass distribution, plays a crucial role in determining angular acceleration. Ultimately, the lighter rod accelerates more than the heavier one under these conditions.
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say i have two rods of the same length but different masses. each rod can rotate around a fixed point, when the same amount of force is applied on the rod at the same distance from the center, which would have the greatest angular acceleration? I think its the one with the greater mass, but I'm not positive
 
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crazylegs1 said:
say i have two rods of the same length but different masses. each rod can rotate around a fixed point, when the same amount of force is applied on the rod at the same distance from the center, which would have the greatest angular acceleration? I think its the one with the greater mass, but I'm not positive
So you think the heavier one will have the greater acceleration? Take the linear analog: Push two masses, one more massive than the other, with the same force. Which has the greater linear acceleration?

What determines the angular acceleration?
 
You are applying the same force, and hence, the same torque.
\alpha depends on moment of inertia. \alpha = \frac{\tau}{I}.
So the lighter one has greater angular acceleration.
 
graphene said:
You are applying the same force, and hence, the same torque.
\alpha depends on moment of inertia. \alpha = \frac{\tau}{I}.
So the lighter one has greater angular acceleration.


I don't think torque are the same. When we consider torque , we need to consider weight as well.Weights are not the same.But light rod angular accelaration is greater. Think!
 
Last edited:
inky said:
I don't think torque are the same. When we consider torque , we need to consider weight as well.Weights are not the same.But light rod angular accelaration is greater. Think!
There's no need to complicate things by including the weight. After all, we don't know the orientation of the rod or the location of of the axis. Keep it simple: Assume that the applied force is the only force acting.
 
crazylegs1 said:
each rod can rotate around a fixed point, when the same amount of force is applied on the rod at the same distance from the center
Firstly he has mentioned in the question that same force is applied at same distance from center so that torque for both rods is same. Since Torque T=F*R.
And second point is that here we may/should assume that both rods are kept on a smooth horizontal surface like a table so need to take into account the weights of the rods.
 
koolraj09 said:
Firstly he has mentioned in the question that same force is applied at same distance from center so that torque for both rods is same. Since Torque T=F*R.
And second point is that here we may/should assume that both rods are kept on a smooth horizontal surface like a table so need to take into account the weights of the rods.

I think we need to consider two forces for each rod.Weight and applied force. Torque are not the same because of the weight.
eg.
Let we consider fixed point (axis) at the end for both rods.
tau(1)=m1g+F(0.5l +x)
tau(2)=m2g+F(0.5l +x)

Take m2>m1
tau(2)>tau(1)
I2alpha(2)>I1alpha(1)
I=ml2/3
I2>I1
m2 alpha(2)>m1 alpha(1)
alpha(1)>alpha(2)
 
inky said:
I think we need to consider two forces for each rod.Weight and applied force. Torque are not the same because of the weight.
eg.
Let we consider fixed point (axis) at the end for both rods.
You seem to be assuming that the rods are rotating in a vertical plane about an axis at one end and that they are oriented horizontally. Why?
 
we can consider applied force for each rod.
eg.
If we consider fixed point (axis) at the the centre of the rod.
tau(1)=F(x)
tau(2)=F(x)

Take m2>m1
tau(2)=tau(1)
I2alpha(2)=I1alpha(1)
I=ml2/12
I2>I1
alpha(1)>alpha(2)
 
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  • #10
Doc Al said:
You seem to be assuming that the rods are rotating in a vertical plane about an axis at one end and that they are oriented horizontally. Why?

Actually we can consider axis at any point because problem didn't mention where the axis is. If we consider at the centre, it is easier for us.
 

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