Another fun logarithm integral

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the evaluation of the integral $$\int^1_0 \frac{\log(t) \log(1-t)}{t} \, dt$$ and its relation to the Riemann zeta function, specifically $\zeta(3)$. The scope includes mathematical reasoning and exploration of integral calculus techniques.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant proposes the integral evaluates to $\zeta(3}$ and invites others to prove it.
  • Another participant provides a hint and begins to evaluate the integral using integration by parts, leading to a connection with the polylogarithm function.
  • A later post reiterates the claim that the integral equals $\zeta(3}$, referencing a formula involving power series and logarithmic integrals.
  • There is a mention of specific values for $n$ and coefficients in a series expansion that relate to the integral's evaluation.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants appear to agree on the integral's evaluation to $\zeta(3}$, but the discussion includes various approaches and hints, indicating that multiple methods are being explored without a definitive consensus on a single method.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes assumptions about the convergence of series and the properties of the polylogarithm function, which may not be fully detailed or resolved.

alyafey22
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Here is a fun exercise to prove

$$\int^1_0 \frac{\log(t) \log(1-t)}{t} \, dt = \zeta(3)$$
 
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Here is a small hint

Try integration by parts
 
We can evaluate the definite integral

Integrating by parts we get the following

$$\int \frac{\log(x) \log(1-x)}{x}\, dx = -\text{Li}_2(x) \log(x) + \text{Li}_3(x) +C$$$$\int^1_0 \frac{\log(x) \log(1-x)}{x}\, dx = \text{Li}_3(1) = \zeta(3) $$
 
ZaidAlyafey said:
Here is a fun exercise to prove

$$\int^1_0 \frac{\log(t) \log(1-t)}{t} \, dt = \zeta(3)$$

In...

http://www.mathhelpboards.com/f49/integrals-natural-logarithm-5286/

... is reported that if...

$$ f(x) = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} a_{k}\ x^{k}\ (1)$$

... then...

$$\int_{0}^{1} f(x)\ \ln^{n} x\ d x = (-1)^{n} n!\ \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{a_{k}}{(k+1)^{n+1}}\ (2)$$

In this case is n=1 and $\displaystyle a_{k}= - \frac{1}{k+1}$, so that...

$$\int_{0}^{1} \frac{\ln (1-x)}{x}\ \ln x\ dx = \zeta (3)\ (3)$$

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 

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