Answer Root-Mean-Square Fluctuation in Box of Length L

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the root-mean-square fluctuation in position for a particle in a one-dimensional box of length L, where the probability density is uniform across the box.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the normalization of the probability density and its implications for expectation values. There are attempts to compute and using the defined probability density, with some questioning the correctness of their calculations and the definitions used.

Discussion Status

There is ongoing clarification regarding the definitions of probability density and expectation values. Some participants have pointed out potential errors in earlier calculations, while others are seeking confirmation on the correct approach to normalization and the use of functions in expectation value calculations.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating through the implications of using probability density versus wave functions, and there is a noted emphasis on ensuring dimensional consistency in their calculations. The original poster expresses confusion regarding the results obtained and the necessity of normalization in this context.

terp.asessed
Messages
126
Reaction score
3

Homework Statement


There is an equal probability density for finding a particle anywhere in the box. Assume that the box is of length L.
What would the root-mean-square fluctation in position be?

Homework Equations


root-mean-square fluctation2 = <x2> - <x>2

The Attempt at a Solution


since there is an equal probability density anywhere in the box, I assumed normalization:
1 = integral (x=0 to L) p(x)dx = integral (x=0 to L) C dx
1 = C integral (x=0 to L) dx = CL
C = 1/L
probability density = p(x) = 1/L

So...from here, I got:

<x> = integral (x=0 to L) p(x) x p(x) dx = 1/L2 integral (x=0 to L) x dx = 1/2
<x2> = integral (x=0 to L) p(x) x2 p(x) dx = 1/L2 integral (x=0 to L) x2 dx = 1/2 = L/3

therefore:
root-mean-square fluctation2 = <x2> - <x>2 = L/3 - 1/2...which does not make sense at ALL--could someone point out the error I've made? I have no idea where I made a mistake because I believe the solution to be something like of one value, like 3/12 or something, not what I got...
 
Physics news on Phys.org
It is ##\langle x\rangle^2##, not ##\langle x\rangle## ... Also, either your normalisation is wrong or your expectation values are. You have to decide whether p(x) is the probability density or the wave-function. You have used it as the probability density when normalising but as a wave function when computing the expectation values. This results in very strange units on your resulting expectation values.
 
root-mean-square fluctation2 = <x2> - <x>2 = L/3 - 1/4.
And, honestly, I am using p(x) as probability density--hence normalization...teacher hinted that the problem is NOT a wave...just a matter of probability density and expectation values...
 
Then your computations of the expectation values are wrong as you are including ##p(x)^2##. The expectation value of ##f(x)## should be
$$
\langle f(x) \rangle = \int_0^L f(x) p(x) dx.
$$
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: terp.asessed
Ok, wait--what is exactly f(x)? if p(x) is a probability density?
 
##f(x)## is a function of ##x## that you want to know the expectation value of. In your case ##f(x) = x## and ##x^2##, respectively.
 
wait, so, to make a loooooong story short:

<x> = integral (x=0 to L) x p(x) dx = 1/L integral (x=0 to L) x dx = L/2
<x2> = integral (x=0 to L) x2 p(x) dx = 1/L integral (x=0 to L) x2 dx = L2/3

Also, I am sorry to keep asking, but shouldn't I use normalization in this case? It seems I got wrong p(x) value?
 
Yes, as you can see, those expressions also have the correct dimensions and the expectation for x is L/2, which is reasonable. Yes, you should use normalisation, the normalisation is p(x) = 1/L. The problem was that you squared p(x) when computing the expectation values in your first post.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: terp.asessed
..ok, so for <x2> = integral (x=0 to L) x2 p(x) dx = 1/L integral (x=0 to L) x2 dx = L2/3 ?
 
  • #10
Yes, so in the end, what do you get for <x^2> - <x>^2?
 
  • #11
(L2/3 - L/2)1/2 for root-mean square fluctation? Does this solution make any sense for the problem? I am sorry but I thought I wouldn't get any squared values in the solution.
 
  • #12
You are now missing the square of the expectation value of x (i.e., <x>^2). You can see that your expression does not make sense since you are trying to subtract something with units length from something with units length squared. Once you have this sorted out, you can always pull out L^2 as an L outside of the square root.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: terp.asessed

Similar threads

  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 19 ·
Replies
19
Views
4K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K