Anti-symmetric tensor question

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SUMMARY

The sigma tensor, defined as \(\sigma_{\mu\nu} = i/2 [\gamma_\mu,\gamma_\nu]\), is utilized to represent anti-symmetric tensors in quantum field theory. However, it cannot directly express the electromagnetic tensor \(F_{\mu\nu}\) as it has different independent components. The relationship between these tensors lies in their transformation properties under Lorentz transformations rather than their equality in components. This distinction is crucial for understanding the limitations of using gamma matrices in this context.

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  • Understanding of gamma matrices in quantum mechanics
  • Familiarity with anti-symmetric tensors and their properties
  • Knowledge of Dirac spinors and bilinear forms
  • Basic principles of Lorentz transformations in physics
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  • Study Griffith's "Introduction to Elementary Particles," 2nd edition, specifically page 237 for detailed explanations
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DuckAmuck
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TL;DR
Can the gamma matrices really represent any anti-symmetric tensor?
The sigma tensor composed of the commutator of gamma matrices is said to be able to represent any anti-symmetric tensor.
\sigma_{\mu\nu} = i/2 [\gamma_\mu,\gamma_\nu]
However, it is not clear how one can arrive at something like the electromagnetic tensor.
F_{\mu\nu} = a \bar{\psi} \sigma_{\mu\nu} \psi ?
Any clarity will be appreciated.
 
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DuckAmuck said:
The sigma tensor composed of the commutator of gamma matrices is said to be able to represent any anti-symmetric tensor.
"Said" where? Do you have a reference?
 
PeterDonis said:
"Said" where? Do you have a reference?
Chapter 7 of Griffith's particle book
 
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OK, can you be more specific (page, edition)? I think your question can be answered as follows. The antisymmetric product (basically matrix commutator) of gammas bears the same index structure as a genuine antisymmetric tensor in spacetime. However, since these are constant matrices (thus can't be varied through a Lorentz transformation), you need them to be "sandwitched" between a product of Dirac spinors. To show that Psibar.sigma_munu.Psi truly transforms as an antimmetric tensor (2-form) under Lorentz transformations, is not an easy task, it's rather tedious.

And F (the Faraday tensor of electromagnetism) is not related to a mere product of Dirac spinors "intertwined" through sigma_munu. You can say that these two tensors are not identical, but covariant (i.e. transform the same way under a Lorentz transformation).
 
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DuckAmuck said:
TL;DR Summary: Can the gamma matrices really represent any anti-symmetric tensor?

The sigma tensor composed of the commutator of gamma matrices is said to be able to represent any anti-symmetric tensor.
\sigma_{\mu\nu} = i/2 [\gamma_\mu,\gamma_\nu]
However, it is not clear how one can arrive at something like the electromagnetic tensor.
F_{\mu\nu} = a \bar{\psi} \sigma_{\mu\nu} \psi ?
Any clarity will be appreciated.
To add to dextercioby: you can't in general. F has 6 independent components and psi, depending on the representation, max 4. There's no way you can express F always in this way. The equality is not in the components, but in their transformation under the Lorentz group.
 
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DuckAmuck said:
$$F_{\mu\nu} = a \bar{\psi} \sigma_{\mu\nu} \psi ?$$

This isn't quite how it is done. Treat
$$\bar{\psi} \sigma_{\mu\nu} \psi$$
as a set of 6 basis elements. To get a general element, write a linear combination of the basis elements, e.g.,
$$F = F^{\mu \nu} \bar{\psi} \sigma_{\mu\nu} \psi.$$
##F## is an anti-symmetric tensor with components ## F^{\mu \nu}##.
 
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2nd edition, page 237

Note, that the text only states that ## \bar \psi \sigma^{\mu \nu}\psi## is an antisymmetric tensor (7.68). It does not say that is equal to the "electromagnetic" tensor.

DuckAmuck said:
The sigma tensor composed of the commutator of gamma matrices is said to be able to represent any anti-symmetric tensor
It does not say this either. We are working with bilinear products of Dirac-spinors in this subchapter.
 
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