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Reading a document about cubic splines, they say that

[tex]\kappa \left ( x \right )=\frac{|f''\left ( x \right )|}{\left ( 1+\left [ f'\left ( x \right )^{2} \right ] \right )^{\frac{3}{2}}}\approx |f''\left ( x \right )|[/tex]

Why are they able to say that? Is there any proof or explanation? Thank you very much