Are relativistic effects real ?

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SUMMARY

The forum discussion centers on the reality of relativistic effects, particularly time dilation and length contraction as described by Einstein's theory of relativity. Participants debate whether these effects are genuine or merely perceived illusions, emphasizing that all motion is relative and that observers in different frames will measure time and distance differently. Key points include the assertion that clocks do return to their original measurements when observers are at rest relative to each other, and the idea that length contraction is a real phenomenon, not just an optical illusion. The discussion highlights the complexities of understanding these relativistic effects and their implications for measurements in physics.

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  • Understanding of Einstein's theory of relativity
  • Familiarity with concepts of time dilation and length contraction
  • Knowledge of inertial reference frames
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  • #61
stillwonder said:
O never left his post. Its the S and S1 that are equidistant from g that make identical travel in opposite directions. and S and S1 reach their posts simultaneously since everything is symmetric in the whole setup.

Just replace S1 for O in my response. (I was considering how each ship regarded the other.)

Thus, O determines that each ship reaches their respective starting post at the same time and reach their ending posts at the same time. Both ship's clocks will show time dilation and read an equal amount of time after stopping . O can also be stopped when it determines when S and S1 have reached their end posts. At the end, the clocks S and S1 will read less than the clock at O when brought back together.

However, according to S and S1, the Clock at O does not stop when they reach their end posts, but contiunes to run. The exact determination of how it runs depends on what S and S1 do after they stop their respective clocks.

It still holds true that O and S(or S1) will not agree that the their respective clocks stopped running at the same time. O may determine that this is the case, but S and S1 will not.
 
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  • #62
stillwonder said:
i am for now limiting to clocks synced in intertial frames, and started/stopped after acceleration/deceleration. ie whether the time dilation seen in intertial clocks is "virtual" or not.

If there's no difference in the acceleration histories of the two clocks, then the times accumulated by the two clocks will be the same. Time dilation is a symmetrical effect. But if one clock has undergone acceleration(s) that the other hasn't, then the accelerated clock will record less time.
 
  • #63
stillwonder said:
thats where is the rub ... once the clocks are synced in inertial frames (moving wrt each other), they are symmetric. one considers the other to be ticking slower by equal amounts. their being out of sync is the thing that's "virtual" here.

a parallel is, loosely speaking, two identical twins, separated by 1 mile, will see the other one shorter than himself. neither is shorter than the other, they both remain same height.

what i gain from this is if i have a clock and the other person sees it running slow and we both stop as we meet, he will see my clock hand on one # and ill see it on another #... that is imposable one observer will have to see the others clock as being fast... if i leave Earth and travel to our closest galaxy i will come back maybe 100 years older and millions of years will have passed on earth... I know i was the one accelerating... but think of it this way.. if we both traveling at each other for some time then both accelerate the same amount to come to a stop beside each other will we disagree as to who's clock is the one that's slow
 
  • #64
OK I GOT IT... loss of simultaneity . observers are a and b

think of two rockets moving at each other under inertia at a course so that they pass very close. Observer A will look at both clocks when the rockets pass. he will see his own as being T and he will see observer B,s clock as being .5T ...Observer B will see his clock as being T and he will see Observer A's clock as being .5T ...
 
  • #65
DaleSpam said:
Then I don't understand what you are saying in this thread. What is your point/question?

the point is neither classical physics nor SR (or anyone else) is any privileged position to assert statements about underlying reality (if any). "OMG, time *itself* slows down ... aww mannn" sounds like (to me atleast) there is a reality of something called "time" apart from what clocks measure. In physics definitions are operational. time is what clocks measure. length is what a ruler measures. SR just allows us to more accurately measure and predict events (which in turn are measurements) in inertial frames of reference.
 
  • #66
stillwonder said:
the point is neither classical physics nor SR (or anyone else) is any privileged position to assert statements about underlying reality (if any).
What do you mean by "underlying reality"? If you mean something that is not measurable then the topic is inherently unscientific: it is philosophy or religion.

stillwonder said:
"OMG, time *itself* slows down ... aww mannn" sounds like (to me atleast) there is a reality of something called "time" apart from what clocks measure. In physics definitions are operational. time is what clocks measure. length is what a ruler measures. SR just allows us to more accurately measure and predict events (which in turn are measurements) in inertial frames of reference.
If it sounds like that to you then I think that you misunderstand Einstein. Lorentz was the one proposing an underlying, unmeasurable physical reality which Einstein discarded and obtained a cleaner interpretation that made the same experimental predictions without proposing any unmeasurable underlying reality. That is why it gained such rapid acceptance by the scientific community.

In the title you ask if relativistic effects are real. The answer is, "yes they are real", they have been experimentally measured. If you claim that the relativistic effects are somehow not real then I submit that it is you who is asserting some unmeasurable "underlying reality".
 
  • #67
DaleSpam said:
What do you mean by "underlying reality"? If you mean something that is not measurable then the topic is inherently unscientific: it is philosophy or religion.

If it sounds like that to you then I think that you misunderstand Einstein. Lorentz was the one proposing an underlying, unmeasurable physical reality which Einstein discarded and obtained a cleaner interpretation that made the same experimental predictions without proposing any unmeasurable underlying reality. That is why it gained such rapid acceptance by the scientific community.

In the title you ask if relativistic effects are real. The answer is, "yes they are real", they have been experimentally measured. If you claim that the relativistic effects are somehow not real then I submit that it is you who is asserting some unmeasurable "underlying reality".

Having articulated it so well yourself, it amazes me you still missed the point.

Science is about repeatability of experiments (act of measuring) in same/similar settings (equipment) with statistically insignificant aberrations in results (measurements). What is being measured still remains undefined, but results are all one cares about (not saying that's undesirable)

Now, as questionable the "photon bouncing off mirrors clock" is, even taking it as correct, the conclusion is not left at "photon clock reading will be lesser". It is asserted that the underlying "time" has slowed down. This is where the underlying, common reality concept is invoked. If photon clocks have problems at high speeds, use atomic clocks, or handwound clocks. No, no, "the underlying time" has slowed down, so it doesn't matter! *ALL* clocks will slow down, since all clocks measure the "underlying reality of time", so what's going to be different if "underlying real time itself" slows down?! This is the kind of argument that makes scientists lazy not to even try to do any experiments and find out.

It was Einstein himself (if i remember correct) who wondered about the identical twins paradox. Its highly presumptuous to assume Einstein himself didnt know how to apply SR to the situation which every graduate and their cocksure professors do it as a matter of fact. What I believe is his question came from he himself not making that leap of faith.

The dynamics of aging are not as rigorously understood and modeled as the photon or handwound clock. In the absence of experiments and/or cost and/or effort etc its conceivable why one would/should use the "underlying reality" argument(since not doing so would mean scrapping everything and just sit there doing nothing). But to start everything from "underlying reality" argument sounds suspicious (to me).

Assuming, penny at hands' length looks same size as the moon. is it same size as the moon? Thats roughly the siprit of "real" versus "virtual" in this thread. I understand the "real" and "virtual" in relativistic situations are much more harder to distinguish, but still they are not coincident.
 
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  • #68
stillwonder said:
as questionable the "photon bouncing off mirrors clock" is
With comments like these, it is hard to take your claims that you "have no problems with SR" as anything but disingenuous and insincere.

stillwonder said:
Now, as questionable the "photon bouncing off mirrors clock" is, even taking it as correct, the conclusion is not left at "photon clock reading will be lesser". It is asserted that the underlying "time" has slowed down. This is where the underlying, common reality concept is invoked. If photon clocks have problems at high speeds, use atomic clocks, or handwound clocks. No, no, "the underlying time" has slowed down, so it doesn't matter! *ALL* clocks will slow down, since all clocks measure the "underlying reality of time", so what's going to be different if "underlying real time itself" slows down?! This is the kind of argument that makes scientists lazy not to even try to do any experiments and find out.
What pompous ignorant arrogance! It is plain to see that either you didn't read the http://www.edu-observatory.org/physics-faq/Relativity/SR/experiments.html" I posted earlier or you didn't understand it. These kinds of experiments have been done for decades! Get your facts straight before making such accusations about the work ethic and dedication of the scientific community.

In any case, the first postulate (which is a testable assumption) requires that all clocks dilate by the same factor, as https://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=1561105&postcount=3". None of this involves any assertions about unmeasurable underlying reality. As long as the measured "t" in all physical laws is the same we can safely say that time slows down without stepping out of the measurable realm of science and into philosophy about any unmeasurable underlying reality.
 
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  • #69
DaleSpam said:
With comments like these, it is hard to take your claims that you "have no problems with SR" as anything but disingenuous and insincere.

lol ... and I thought I was paranoid! I have no problems per se with any theory that provides results. SR does. I use Newtonian mechanics too. If I had to base my standing on not agreeing on "how the theory got there", then it'll be pretty much every theory.

In any case, the first postulate (which is a testable assumption) requires that all clocks dilate by the same factor, as https://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=1561105&postcount=3". None of this involves any assertions about unmeasurable underlying reality. As long as the measured "t" in all physical laws is the same we can safely say that time slows down without stepping out of the measurable realm of science and into philosophy about any unmeasurable underlying reality.

Postulate 1 invokes "all physical laws" and you take it to

1. include time dilation ... which isn't something known to you at that "postulation" point
OR
2. you take it as "underlying reality, measurable or immeasurable" which is the point I made earlier.

Also, when time itself is changing, you are taking it as a derived quantity dependent on "physical laws or underlying reality". There is no mechanism given how this is regulated hence making it "immeasurable" by your own definition.

There is no real need to invoke "underlying reality, measurable or immeasurable".
Edit: Although, having a "model" makes it easier to accept and understand.
Whatever you measure is practically all that's there, and it needs to be consistent. Hence the operational definitions in physics.
 
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  • #70
Overmind said:
Relativistic effects are not real because they are observed in a relative, not objective way.

It depends on how you define "objective way" and "relative way", to me, you are just playing with words if you can't proove your statement.

Regarding your answer in another thread that there is no strong force, I just think you are a crack pot maniac.

Relativistic effects are real in that sense that they affect our measurments. See for example the longer laboratory life time of a fast muon vs. a slow moving muon (in lab frame). And a clock traveling in a weaker gravitational field moves slower compared to a clock in a stronger. Those effects does just not exist on the paper, but also in the real world.
 
  • #71
1) Relativity is a stringent science, with a heavy mathematical formalism. Just have a look at Rindler: Special relativity, oxford press.

It could reproduce all known phenomena and predict other results. That is why Einsteins special and general relativity is the paradigm of todays physics.

2) The effects of gravity on the cesium atoms different motion is of course accounted for. Even with this account, the clock still moves to slow, exactly in accordance with Einsteins general relativity.

You know, this is like the people believing in the Moan Hoax.. "The americal flag is moving, but there is no air on the moon, hence it can't blow and set the flag in motion."

But the real explanation is that the flag was set in motion by the astronaut when he stucked it into the ground, and since there are no air resistance, the flag will continue to move forever..

Always think twice.
 

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