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stillwonder

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**Are relativistic effects "real"?**

At this point i'd like to detour the topic and ask why time is so special that it doesn't come back to its original measurement. After all, once all moving observers are stopped wrt to each other, and they compare their measuring rods, they measure equal. so why not the clocks?

If one goes by saying they do measure similarly afterwards, it makes sense to assume all the intermediate slowdown was only "virtual".

since clock is a "cumulative" device, if one were cycling on the spaceship, a stationary observer might calculate the cumulative distance traveled as different than what the astronaut believes. but when they actually come down, shake hands, and compare the logs, both will read same

[edit: I split off this topic from the original https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=236885" thread--Doc Al]

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