- #1

PainterGuy

- 940

- 69

- TL;DR Summary
- This question just came to my mind and I thought I should confirm it. Are the cosine functions with the same amplitude but different frequencies are totally in phase at any other point other than the origin? The frequency, f, could be 0<f<∞. I'm not sure if the answer is obvious.

Hi,

This question just came to my mind and I thought I should confirm it. Are the cosine functions with the same amplitude but different frequencies are totally in phase at any other point other than the origin? The frequency, f, could be anywhere between 0 < f < ∞. I'm sorry if the answer is too obvious.

I have graphed below some cosines below and to me it looks that the origin is only point where they are totally in phase.

Could you please help me with this? Thank you!

This question just came to my mind and I thought I should confirm it. Are the cosine functions with the same amplitude but different frequencies are totally in phase at any other point other than the origin? The frequency, f, could be anywhere between 0 < f < ∞. I'm sorry if the answer is too obvious.

I have graphed below some cosines below and to me it looks that the origin is only point where they are totally in phase.

Could you please help me with this? Thank you!