Artinian rings are noetherian, why does this make sense?

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SUMMARY

Artinian rings are indeed Noetherian, which is a direct consequence of the Akizuki–Hopkins–Levitzki theorem. The discussion highlights the need for an independent proof and an intuitive understanding of this relationship. Participants express confusion regarding the standard proof, indicating that a clearer explanation or alternative proof would be beneficial for comprehension.

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PsychonautQQ
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Can somebody explain why this shouldn't surprise me? Apparently it's a corollary of the Akizuki–Hopkins–Levitzki theorem but the proof of that theorem isn't helping me really understand what's going on.
 
Nope. The problem is that the standard proof for why artinian rings are noetherian is a corolarry to a theorem that is beyond me at this point; I'm looking for both an independent proof and an intuitive understanding.
 

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