A Artinian rings are noetherian, why does this make sense?

[PsychonautQQ]

Can somebody explain why this shouldn't surprise me? Apparently it's a corollary of the Akizuki–Hopkins–Levitzki theorem but the proof of that theorem isn't helping me really understand what's going on.

 

[PsychonautQQ]

Nope. The problem is that the standard proof for why artinian rings are noetherian is a corolarry to a theorem that is beyond me at this point; I'm looking for both an independent proof and an intuitive understanding.

 

[mathwonk]

http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1055984/commutative-artinian-ring-is-noetherian