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See section 1 of https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/frequently-made-errors-mechanics-friction/Pushoam said:Why do we take Normal force perpendicular to the ground instead of that to the plank?
See section 1 of https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/frequently-made-errors-mechanics-friction/Pushoam said:Why do we take Normal force perpendicular to the ground instead of that to the plank?
Why do you need the forces for the energy equation? There is no friction.Pushoam said:How to derive the energy eqn. as normal forces by wall and ground are not known?
Should I take them constant ?
That is only transiently true. It is not valid to differentiate that to obtain equations relating the derivatives of x and theta.Pushoam said:and ##x = l \cos \theta## gives,
I have taken my kinematic equations for the acceleration of the center of mass in cartesian coordinates and used them to back out the location of the instantaneous center of rotation. Sure enough, it turned out to be exactly where you said it would be (at the instantaneous intersections of the normals). I now see what you mean about resolving the acceleration into a tangential and radial component to the trajectory of the center of mass, and obtaining the tangential and centripetal accelerations along a radial line through the center of rotation. Very cute. But now I have no idea how to generalize this. And also, from scratch, how does one deduce the location of the center of rotation? This is all very interesting.haruspex said:No.
At each instant, each point of the plank will be moving tangentially to the instantaneous rotation centre. So just take the normals to the contact points and see where they intersect.
I have to calculate work done by normal forces in order to apply work kinetic energy theorem.haruspex said:Why do you need the forces for the energy equation? There is no friction.
At time t,haruspex said:That is only transiently true. It is not valid to differentiate that to obtain equations relating the derivatives of x and theta.
It is also valid in certain other cases. It is valid if point ##p## is the instantaneous center of rotation. But it is not generally true that ##d L_p/dt = I_p \alpha## when ##p## is the instantaneous center of rotation. So, for the plank problem, I believe that ##d L_p/dt = I_p \alpha## needs to be justified. (I think it can be justified.)Pushoam said:You are asking for justification because ## \vec L_p = I_p \omega ## is valid only for fixed-axis rotation. Right?
Your vertical force balance is correct. You also need to write the equation for the horizontal force balance, including the horizontal normal force. Your moment balance omits the contribution of the horizontal normal force, and it must be included. You are going to need to combine these three equations in order to solve for the angular acceleration in terms of the angle ##\theta##. You can then integrate that equation to get the angular velocity as a function of the initial angle and the current angle.Pushoam said:Another attempt :
View attachment 209130
Center ūf mass motion gives,
##
mg(-\hat y ) + N \hat y = m\ddot y \hat y ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ \ddot y <0. ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~(1)##
## y = l \sin \theta
\\ \ddot y = l\{\ddot \theta \cos \theta - \sin \theta {\dot \theta }^2\}
##
I can't decide here whether ## \ddot \theta ## is positive or negative.
Since the torque about both center of mass C and pivot P is anti - clockwise,
considering ## \vec \tau = I \vec \alpha : \vec \alpha = \ddot \theta \hat z, ## I decide ##\ddot >0. ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~(2)##
But this method is valid only if ## \vec \tau = I \vec \alpha## is valid only for fixed axis rotation.
Using (1) and (2) ,
##N- mg = ml[ \cos \theta ~\ddot \theta - \sin \theta ~ {\dot \theta }^2 ] ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~(1.1)##
Similarly,
## \ddot x =0 ~ and~ x = l \cos \theta ## gives,
##\ddot \theta = \cot \theta {\dot \theta}^2 ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~(3)##
(1.1) and (3) gives,
##N - mg = \frac {ml {\dot \theta }^2 \cos {2 \theta} } {\sin \theta } ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~(4)##
Now, considering rotational motion about center of mass,
Torque about center of mass,
##Nl\cos \theta = I_{cen} \alpha ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~(5)##
Now, can I take ## \ddot \theta = \alpha##?
Is this correct so far?
My difficulty is that we are dealing with the instant that contact is lost. Deriving to get the velocity and acceleration up until that instant is fine, and of course the velocity obtained will also be correct at that instant, but can we be sure the acceleration obtained is correct? Maybe it is, and I'm being overcautious.Pushoam said:Now, how to get to your statement mathematically?
Yes, that looks right. It just says ##\vec v=\vec x\times\vec\omega##.Chestermiller said:@haruspex I did an analysis to see if I could derive a general relationship for quantifying the location of the instantaneous center of rotation, given the velocity of the center of mass and the rate of rotation of the object. I probably "reinvented the wheel," but the results I obtained were as follows: If ##v_x## and ##v_y## are the cartesian components of the velocity of the center of mass, and ##\omega## is the counter-clockwise rate of rotation of the object, the coordinates of the center of rotation are given by the simple equations:$$x-x_c=-\frac{v_y}{\omega}$$ $$y-y_c=\frac{v_x}{\omega}$$. Is this consistent with your experience?
Chet
I don't think you are being overcautious. He can't just set the horizontal acceleration to zero, because the horizontal force history prior to loss of contact is important in determining what is happening at the time of contact. It is necessary to characterize the entire time interval between the initial state and the time that contact is lost (or to apply the energy balance at least at the two end points).haruspex said:My difficulty is that we are dealing with the instant that contact is lost. Deriving to get the velocity and acceleration up until that instant is fine, and of course the velocity obtained will also be correct at that instant, but can we be sure the acceleration obtained is correct? Maybe it is, and I'm being overcautious.
Yes. That's exactly what I did.haruspex said:Yes, that looks right. It just says ##\vec v=\vec x\times\vec\omega##.
But in this case the easiest way to find it is by taking the normals to the known velocity vectors.
In my judgment, there was quite a bit of calculus in there.J Hann said:An interesting discussion.
I arrived at a solution using minimal calculus and basic physics and wanted to check my result.
I found a solution using Lagrangian mechanics at the following web page:
http://physics.columbia.edu/files/physics/content/Quals2010Sec1.pdf
and my result agreed with the one found there.
I didn't use advanced mechanics.Chestermiller said:In my judgment, there was quite a bit of calculus in there.