B-field for a half-infinitely long wire

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The discussion focuses on solving for the magnetic field around a half-infinite wire using the Biot–Savart Law. The user expresses confusion about the integration limits and the implications of the wire being infinitely long, particularly regarding the variable r. Clarifications are provided on the meanings of the variables involved, including magnetic permeability, current, and distance from the wire segment to the observation point. The user considers expressing r in terms of sin(θ) to facilitate the integration process. The conversation concludes with acknowledgments of assistance from other participants.
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Homework Statement
Please see below
Relevant Equations
Please see below
For this problem,
1674757975575.png

The solution is
1674757999684.png


However, I would like to understand how to solve this using Biot–Savart Law.

So far my working is:

## \vec {dB} = \frac {\mu_0Ids\sin\theta} {4\pi r^2}##

However, I'm not sure what to do about the ## r^2 ## since the wire is infinitely long. I am thinking about having the limits of integration to be ## \theta_1 = 0 ## and ## \theta_2 = \frac {\pi} {2} ##

Many thanks!
 
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Callumnc1 said:
.So far my working is:

## \vec {dB} = \frac {\mu_0Ids\sin\theta} {4\pi r^2}##
Knowing a formula is of no value unless you know what all the variables mean and in what context the formula applies.
Please state what those variables mean here. From that you should be able to answer your question.
 
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As your LHS is vector, RHS should be vector also. Check it out.
 
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haruspex said:
Knowing a formula is of no value unless you know what all the variables mean and in what context the formula applies.
Please state what those variables mean here. From that you should be able to answer your question.
Thank you for your reply @haruspex!

##\mu_0## is the magnetic permeability of free space
##I## is the current in the vertical wire
## ds ## is the length element of the wire
## r^2 ## is the distance from each ##ds## to point ##P##

I think the thing that was tripping me up was that I thinking that we could call the infinite length to be ##a## which would mean that ##\tan\theta = \frac {x} {a} ## however this would be zero since ## a \rightarrow \infty ## then ##\tan \theta \rightarrow 0 ##. I was then going to solve for ##\theta## and have limits of integration to be angles ## \theta_1 = 0 ## and ## \theta_2 = \frac {\pi} {2} ##. However now I think I should get ## r ## in terms of ## \sin\theta ##. I will try to solve that now. Is my reasoning correct so far?
 
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anuttarasammyak said:
As your LHS is vector, RHS should be vector also. Check it out.
Thanks @anuttarasammyak ! Sorry both sides should have ##-\hat k## as the direction.
 
Callumnc1 said:
I should get ## r ## in terms of ## \sin\theta ##.
Yes.
 
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1674778111259.png

1674778179068.png

1674778209637.png
 
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haruspex said:
Yes.
Thank you @haruspex !
 
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Callumnc1 said:
Thank you for your solution @Alex Schaller! :)
You are welcome
 
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