B-field for a half-infinitely long wire

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The discussion focuses on calculating the magnetic field (B-field) for a half-infinitely long wire using the Biot–Savart Law. The formula presented is \vec {dB} = \frac {\mu_0Ids\sin\theta} {4\pi r^2}, where \mu_0 is the magnetic permeability of free space, I is the current, ds is the length element of the wire, and r is the distance from each ds to point P. The user seeks clarification on integrating with respect to the infinite length of the wire, particularly regarding the limits of integration for \theta.

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Homework Statement
Please see below
Relevant Equations
Please see below
For this problem,
1674757975575.png

The solution is
1674757999684.png


However, I would like to understand how to solve this using Biot–Savart Law.

So far my working is:

## \vec {dB} = \frac {\mu_0Ids\sin\theta} {4\pi r^2}##

However, I'm not sure what to do about the ## r^2 ## since the wire is infinitely long. I am thinking about having the limits of integration to be ## \theta_1 = 0 ## and ## \theta_2 = \frac {\pi} {2} ##

Many thanks!
 
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Callumnc1 said:
.So far my working is:

## \vec {dB} = \frac {\mu_0Ids\sin\theta} {4\pi r^2}##
Knowing a formula is of no value unless you know what all the variables mean and in what context the formula applies.
Please state what those variables mean here. From that you should be able to answer your question.
 
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As your LHS is vector, RHS should be vector also. Check it out.
 
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haruspex said:
Knowing a formula is of no value unless you know what all the variables mean and in what context the formula applies.
Please state what those variables mean here. From that you should be able to answer your question.
Thank you for your reply @haruspex!

##\mu_0## is the magnetic permeability of free space
##I## is the current in the vertical wire
## ds ## is the length element of the wire
## r^2 ## is the distance from each ##ds## to point ##P##

I think the thing that was tripping me up was that I thinking that we could call the infinite length to be ##a## which would mean that ##\tan\theta = \frac {x} {a} ## however this would be zero since ## a \rightarrow \infty ## then ##\tan \theta \rightarrow 0 ##. I was then going to solve for ##\theta## and have limits of integration to be angles ## \theta_1 = 0 ## and ## \theta_2 = \frac {\pi} {2} ##. However now I think I should get ## r ## in terms of ## \sin\theta ##. I will try to solve that now. Is my reasoning correct so far?
 
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anuttarasammyak said:
As your LHS is vector, RHS should be vector also. Check it out.
Thanks @anuttarasammyak ! Sorry both sides should have ##-\hat k## as the direction.
 
Callumnc1 said:
I should get ## r ## in terms of ## \sin\theta ##.
Yes.
 
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1674778111259.png

1674778179068.png

1674778209637.png
 
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haruspex said:
Yes.
Thank you @haruspex !
 
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Callumnc1 said:
Thank you for your solution @Alex Schaller! :)
You are welcome
 
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