Part (b) of theorem 3.20 is to prove that the limit as n approaches infinity of the nth root of p equals one(for p>0). The proof given in the text uses some inequality derived from the binomial theorem which seems to me to just come out of nowhere and provide a completely unintuitive proof. That's great that this inequality works but how would I know to use this specific inequality in the first place? Could someone either provide a more explanatory proof which perhaps does not use the binomial theorem, or clarify the proof in the text so that it doesn't seem so unnatural?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Baby rudin, Limit of nth root of p

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