Beta-function for the Gross-Neveu model

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the computation of the beta function for the Gross-Neveu model as presented in the Peskin & Schroeder textbook. Participants are examining discrepancies between their results and various online solutions, particularly focusing on the implications of different definitions and conventions used in the literature.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to compute the beta function using the Lagrangian of the Gross-Neveu model and discusses the field strength and coupling renormalization. They express confusion regarding differing results from various sources and question the necessity of vertex renormalization. Other participants inquire about references and provide insights into the implications of different definitions of parameters.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the original poster's computations, with some offering references and suggesting that certain solutions may be more reliable. There is acknowledgment of a potential error in the original poster's calculations, which may affect the final result. The discussion is ongoing, with no explicit consensus reached yet.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of varying definitions of the parameter ##N## in different texts, which may lead to discrepancies in the beta function results. The original poster also notes a mistake in their initial calculations that could alter their findings.

Manu_
Messages
12
Reaction score
1
Homework Statement
In the Peskin & Schroeder textbook, the $\beta$-function for the Gross-Neveu model is discussed in problem 12.2. After computing it, I have tried checking my results with some solutions found online. My problem is that they all disagree among each other (something quite recurrent for this book actually).
Relevant Equations
$$\mathcal{L} = \bar{\Psi}_{i}(i\not{\partial} )\Psi_{i}-g\sigma \bar{\Psi}_i\Psi_i-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2$$

$$\delta_{Z_{\Psi}}=(ig)^2\int \frac{d^{d}k}{(2\pi)^d} Tr[\frac{i\not{k}}{k^2}\frac{i}{(k+p)^2}]=0 $$

$$\delta_{Z_{\sigma}}=-N(ig)^2\int \frac{d^{d}k}{(2\pi)^d}\frac{i\not{k}}{k^2} \frac{i(\not{k}+\not{p})}{(k+p)^2} =-Ng^2 \int \frac{d^{d}k}{(2\pi)^d}\frac{1}{(k+p)^2} =-Ng^2\frac{i}{4\pi\epsilon}+finite$$

$$\delta_{g}=(ig)^3 \int \frac{d^{d}k}{(2\pi)^d} Tr[\frac{i(\not{k}+\not{p_1})}{(k+p_1)^2} \frac{i(\not{k}+\not{p_2})}{(k+p_2)^2}] = ig^3 \int \frac{d^{d}k}{(2\pi)^d}\frac{-2k^2}{(k+p_1)^2 (k+p_2)^2}+...=-2ig^3\frac{i}{4\pi\epsilon} $$
In the Peskin & Schroeder textbook, the ##\beta## function for the Gross-Neveu model is discussed in problem 12.2. After computing it, I have tried checking my results with some solutions found online. My problem is that they all disagree among each other (something quite recurrent for this book actually). I have basically followed the original paper from Gross and Neveu:

- We start from the Lagrangian $$\mathcal{L} = \bar{\Psi}_{i}(i\not{\partial} )\Psi_{i}-g\sigma \bar{\Psi}_i\Psi_i-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2.$$
- We compute the field strength renormalisation

For ##\Psi: ## $$\delta_{Z_{\Psi}}=(ig)^2\int \frac{d^{d}k}{(2\pi)^d} Tr[\frac{i\not{k}}{k^2}\frac{i}{(k+p)^2}]=0 $$

For ##\sigma:## $$\delta_{Z_{\sigma}}=-N(ig)^2\int \frac{d^{d}k}{(2\pi)^d}\frac{i\not{k}}{k^2} \frac{i(\not{k}+\not{p})}{(k+p)^2} =-Ng^2 \int \frac{d^{d}k}{(2\pi)^d}\frac{1}{(k+p)^2} =-Ng^2\frac{i}{4\pi\epsilon}+finite$$

- We compute the coupling renormalisation (though in the Gross-Neveu original paper, the authors argue the vertex need not be renormalised. That is a point I don't get)

$$\delta_{g}=(ig)^3 \int \frac{d^{d}k}{(2\pi)^d} Tr[\frac{i(\not{k}+\not{p_1})}{(k+p_1)^2} \frac{i(\not{k}+\not{p_2})}{(k+p_2)^2}] = ig^3 \int \frac{d^{d}k}{(2\pi)^d}\frac{-2k^2}{(k+p_1)^2 (k+p_2)^2}+...=-2ig^3\frac{i}{4\pi\epsilon} $$

- We use relation (12.53)

$$\beta (g) = M\frac{\partial}{\partial M}\left(-\delta_g +\frac{1}{2}g\sum_i \delta_{Z_i} \right)=-\frac{2g^3}{4\pi}+g\frac{-Ng^2}{4\pi}=-\frac{g^3}{4\pi}(N+2)$$

It is asymptotically free, but I do fully trust my result. Any comment welcome!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Can you provide the references you found for this calculation?

Thanks!
 
You should find that the beta function vanishes for ##N = 1## (where ##N## is the number of two-component Dirac fermions, as in P&S's notation). This is because of a well-known equivalence between that model and that of a free massless boson. So I'm biased towards the Xianyu solutions being correct, unless somehow Murayama's definition of ##N## is given by twice the definition in P&S (which some authors like to do, since that definition of ##N## is the total number of components*flavors).

Also, after converting the difference in notations, Zinn-Justin's textbook also gives the same beta function as Xianyu's solution (he uses a different regularization scheme, but it is well-known that this doesn't change the one-loop contribution to the beta function).

I will take a look at your computations when I have time, but in the meantime I would say Xianyu's solutions are likely trustworthy.
 
Thanks King Vitamin, I will take a look in that textbook.
Actually, there is a mistake in my first post, where I used (ig) instead of (-ig) for the coupling, and this changes the final result to (N-2) instead of (N+2). But I still have to find out how to edit my post...
 

Similar threads

Replies
15
Views
3K
Replies
4
Views
1K
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
1K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
3K
  • · Replies 23 ·
Replies
23
Views
4K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
Replies
27
Views
4K