Bijection between products of countable sets

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving the bijection between the Cartesian products S1 × Z and S2 × Z, where S1 = {a} and S2 = {b, c}. The key insight is that while S1 and S2 are not equinumerous, the infinite nature of Z allows for a bijective mapping. The proposed mapping demonstrates how elements from S1 can be paired with integers in Z to correspond with elements from S2, effectively illustrating the counterintuitive properties of infinite sets.

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  • Understanding of bijections and equinumerosity in set theory
  • Familiarity with Cartesian products of sets
  • Knowledge of infinite sets and their properties
  • Basic comprehension of mappings and functions
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Mathematicians, students of set theory, and anyone interested in the properties of infinite sets and bijections will benefit from this discussion.

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Homework Statement


Let S1 = {a} be a set consisting of just one element and let
S2 = {b, c} be a set consisting of two elements.

Show that S1 × Z is bijective to S2 × Z.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



So I usually prove bijectivity by showing that two sets are equinumerous, But in this case S1 and S2 are not so that makes it more difficult.
 
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You're right, this problem demonstrates how things can become unintuitive when dealing with infinite sets. If A were any nonempty finite set, this claim would be false, since in that case
<br /> |S_1 \times A| = |S_1||A| = |A|<br />
<br /> |S_2 \times A| = |S_2||A| = 2|A| \; .<br />

However, since \mathbb{Z} is infinite, we have more leeway. Can you think of a proper subset of \mathbb{Z} that is equinumerous to \mathbb{Z}?
 
here is one idea:

...
...
(a,-3) <--> (c,-2)
(a,-2) <--> (b,-1)
(a,-1) <--> (c,-1)
(a,0) <--> (b,0)
(a,1) <--> (c,0)
(a,2) <--> (b,1)
(a,3) <--> (c,1)
(a,4) <--> (b,2)
...
...

can you prove this is, in fact, a bijection?
 

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