- #1

- 41

- 1

Does anyone know why k has to be real in an infinite system for bloch's theorem. I understand that the wavefunction becomes unphysical in an infinite system as it diverges. Why does that mean k has to be real?

f(x)=u(x)exp(ikx)

You are using an out of date browser. It may not display this or other websites correctly.

You should upgrade or use an alternative browser.

You should upgrade or use an alternative browser.

- I
- Thread starter thegirl
- Start date

- #1

- 41

- 1

Does anyone know why k has to be real in an infinite system for bloch's theorem. I understand that the wavefunction becomes unphysical in an infinite system as it diverges. Why does that mean k has to be real?

f(x)=u(x)exp(ikx)

- #2

DrDu

Science Advisor

- 6,112

- 808

http://scitation.aip.org/content/aapt/journal/ajp/69/3/10.1119/1.1328351

Share: