Calc III - is this differentiable in all points?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the differentiability of the function f(x,y) defined piecewise, particularly at points where y = -x. Participants are examining the behavior of the function and its partial derivatives to determine differentiability across its domain.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to calculate the partial derivatives and questions the continuity of these derivatives at specific points. Other participants inquire about the reasoning behind the assertion that the derivative is zero at y = -x and discuss the implications of the theorem regarding differentiability and continuity of partial derivatives.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants exploring the nuances of differentiability and the conditions under which it holds. Some guidance has been provided regarding the relationship between partial derivatives and differentiability, highlighting a misunderstanding that was clarified.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of differentiability in the context of a piecewise function, with specific attention to the behavior of derivatives at boundary conditions. There is an acknowledgment of a theorem that relates differentiability to the continuity of partial derivatives, which is under examination.

Telemachus
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Homework Statement


Hi there. I got next problem, and I must say if it is differentiable in all of its domain.
[tex]f(x,y)=\begin{Bmatrix} (x+y)^2\sin(\displaystyle\frac{\pi}{x+y}) & \mbox{ if }& y\neq{-x}\\0 & \mbox{if}& y=-x\end{matrix}[/tex]

So, I thought trying with the partial derivatives.

[tex]f_x=\begin{Bmatrix} 2(x+y)\sin(\displaystyle\frac{\pi}{x+y})-\pi\cos(\displaystyle\frac{\pi}{x+y}) & \mbox{ if }& y\neq{-x}\\0 & \mbox{if}& y=-x\end{matrix}[/tex]

[tex]f_y=\begin{Bmatrix} 2(x+y)\sin(\displaystyle\frac{\pi}{x+y})-\pi\cos(\displaystyle\frac{\pi}{x+y}) & \mbox{ if }& y\neq{-x}\\0 & \mbox{if}& y=-x\end{matrix}[/tex]

And here is the deal. As you see, I've calculated by definition that for all points of the form [tex](x_0,-x_0)[/tex] the derivative is zero. But the limit of the derivative tending to that kind of points doesn't exists because of the cosine. Is there something wrong with this? I mean is there any kind of contradiction with this, or its alright and just the derivative isn't continuous at that kind of points?

Bye and thanks.
 
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how did you get that the derivative at y=-x is zero?
 


The partial derivative, with respect to y, at point [itex](x_0, -x_0)[/itex], is given by
[tex]\lim_{h\to 0}\frac{f(x_0, -x_0+h) - f(x_0, -x0)}{h}= \lim_{h\to 0}\frac{(x_0-x_0+h)^2sin(\frac{\pi}{x_0- x_0+y})- 0}{h}[/tex]
[tex]= \lim_{h\to 0}\frac{h^2 sin(\frac{\pi}{h})}{h}= \lim_{h\to 0} hsin(\frac{\pi}{h})= 0[/tex]

And similarly for the partial derivative with respect to x.

Telemachus, what you have shown is that the partial derivatives exist which is NOT the same as saying the function is differentiable. There is a theorem that says a function is differentiable at a point if and only if its partial derivatives are continuous in some neighborhood of that point.
 


Yes, you're right. Thanks HallsOfIvy. I've misunderstood this theorem and thought that the inverse of it was truth too, which it isn't. The condition suffices for the differentiability, but it isn't a necessary condition.
 

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