bincy
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Hii friends,[math]\int_{0}^{1}\left(1-x\right)^{N}*e^{x}\, dx[/math]
regards,
Bincy
regards,
Bincy
The discussion revolves around the calculation of the definite integral \(\int_{0}^{1}(1-x)^{N}e^{x} \, dx\) for varying values of \(N\). Participants explore different approaches to evaluate this integral, including specific cases for small integers and the use of integration by parts.
Participants do not reach a consensus on the correct approach to solving the integral. Multiple competing views and methods are presented, with some participants questioning the validity of their own or others' solutions.
Some participants note that their proposed solutions may not satisfy the initial conditions or may not be correct for all cases where the integral has been evaluated. There is also mention of incomplete induction versus complete induction in the context of proving solutions.
this is what i have:for n=0, [math]\int_{0}^{1}\left(1-x\right)^{0}*e^{x}\, dx = e-1[/math]bincybn said:Hii friends,
[math]\int_{0}^{1}\left(1-x\right)^{N}*e^{x}\, dx[/math]regards,
Bincy
bincybn said:Hii friends,[math]\int_{0}^{1}\left(1-x\right)^{N}*e^{x}\, dx[/math]
regards,
Bincy
themurgesh said:this is what i have:for n=0, [math]\int_{0}^{1}\left(1-x\right)^{0}*e^{x}\, dx = e-1[/math]
for n=1, [math]\int_{0}^{1}\left(1-x\right)^{1}*e^{x}\, dx = e-2[/math]
for n=2, [math]\int_{0}^{1}\left(1-x\right)^{2}*e^{x}\, dx = 2e-5[/math]
for n=3, [math]\int_{0}^{1}\left(1-x\right)^{3}*e^{x}\, dx = 6e-16[/math]
for n=4, [math]\int_{0}^{1}\left(1-x\right)^{4}*e^{x}\, dx = 24e-65[/math]
and so on..so you have two sequnces.. 1,1,2,6,24... is simply n! for n=0,1,2...1,2,5,16,65,... is [math]e \cdot \Gamma(n+1,1)[/math] which is incomplete gamma function. For some reason I cannot paste the link here, please refer to the page mathworld.wolfram.com/BinomialSums.html
See equations 35 and 36so you have:
[math]\int_{0}^{1}\left(1-x\right)^{n}*e^{x}\, dx \;= \; [e\cdot n! - e \cdot \Gamma(n+1,1)] = e[\Gamma(n+1)-\Gamma(n+1,1)][/math]
CaptainBlack said:Let:
\( \displaystyle I_k=\int_0^1 (1-x)^k e^x \; dx\)
Then integration by parts gives: \(I_k+k I_{k-1}=1\)
CB
bincybn said:Integration by parts gives [math]k*I_{k-1}-I_{k}=1 [/math]
But how to solve this equation?
Is the ans [math] \frac{k+1}{k-1} [/math] ?thanks in advance.
Bincy
See my previous post, it has been edited to include the actual solution which you can prove is the solution by induction.bincybn said:May I know what is wrong in my ans?
My ans. satisfies the recursive eqn.
I am also unhappy to include gamma function in my ans.Oops. I didn't even bother abt the initial conditions.
Pls ignore this reply.
Thanks.. I got it. Instead of + it is -.CaptainBlack said:\[I_k=e \times n!+n! \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{1}{k!}\]
CB
bincybn said:Thanks.. I got it. Instead of + it is -.