Calculating Distance of a Brick on a Hill with Friction

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the distance a 500g brick can slide down a hill before stopping due to friction, with a coefficient of friction (μ) of 0.150. The initial velocity of the brick is 200 cm/s, and the calculations involve energy conservation principles, including kinetic energy (KE) and potential energy (PE). The final consensus indicates that the correct displacement is approximately -0.20 m, indicating the brick moves in the opposite direction of the friction force. Participants emphasize the importance of correctly accounting for forces, particularly the normal force and gravitational components, in the calculations.

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Homework Statement


The brick mass 500g is pushed on hill with velocity 200 cm/s, how far can the brick reach before it stops when μ=0.150
Untitled.png

Homework Equations


W=Fdcosθ
E=1/2mvv

The Attempt at a Solution


I got about 1 m before the brick stops, does it correct?
 
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How did you calculate 1m?
 
PeroK said:
How did you calculate 1m?
I calculated how much energy in the brick after it was pushed with Kinetic equation and I got 1 J, when the brick stops moving it means the energy was consumed by the friction till 0J, I can find work by W=(delta)E and I got 0-1= -1 J

-1=Fdcosθ
F is friction force = 0.735 N
d is the displacement
cosθ is anagle between F and d (180 degree) = -1
-1=(0.735)(d)(-1)
it is about 1m (significant digit has only 1 )
 
Aren't you forgetting something? Hint: What would happen if friction were zero?
 
Pao44445 said:
I calculated how much energy in the brick after it was pushed with Kinetic equation and I got 1 J, when the brick stops moving it means the energy was consumed by the friction till 0J, I can find work by W=(delta)E and I got 0-1= -1 J

-1=Fdcosθ
F is friction force = 0.735 N
How did you calculate F? How should you have calculated F?
 
I gave up ;_; there are so many variables to thing about. I should go back and re-study again
 
Pao44445 said:
I gave up ;_; there are so many variables to thing about. I should go back and re-study again
The way to calculate F is to start by calculating the normal force of the 500g block on the ramp. A free body diagram would allow you to clearly see what forces act on that block. Concentrate on the [component of] the forces in the direction perpendicular to the ramp. There are two. The block does not accelerate perpendicular to the ramp. That gives you an easy equation to solve for the normal force.
 
OK, I missed something, I forgot that the only force acting on the object is friction
W=Fdcosθ
E(final) - E(intial) = F(friction)d(displacement)cos180
mgh- 1/2mv2 = μNd(-1)

(0.5)(-9.8)(dsin25)-1/2(0.5)(2)2 = (0.150)(0.5)(-9.8)(d)(-1)
-2d-1 = 0.735d
d = -1 / (2-0.735)
d ≈ -0.8 m (opposite direction of friction )

Does it correct?
 
Pao44445 said:
E(final) - E(intial) = F(friction)d(displacement)cos180
Do you expect the left hand side of that equation to turn out positive or negative?
Pao44445 said:
(0.150)(0.5)(-9.8)(d)(-1)
Does that have the right sign for the left hand side?
Pao44445 said:
(0.5)(-9.8)(dsin25)
Has the brick gained or lost PE?
 
  • #10
haruspex said:
Do you expect the left hand side of that equation to turn out positive or negative?

Does that have the right sign for the left hand side?

Has the brick gained or lost PE?

oppps I forgot the negative

what do you mean about the brick gained or lost PE? The brick loses some of the energy by the work of friction?
 
  • #11
Pao44445 said:
OK, I missed something, I forgot that the only force acting on the object is friction
That is not correct. There are two other forces acting on the object.

W=Fdcosθ
E(final) - E(intial) = F(friction)d(displacement)cos180
mgh- 1/2mv2 = μNd(-1)

(0.5)(-9.8)(dsin25)-1/2(0.5)(2)2 = (0.150)(0.5)(-9.8)(d)(-1)
[emphasis mine]
You need to correct your calculation of F. It is not given by 0.5 times -9.8. Nor is is clear why you quote cosine in one formula and then sine in the next.

Edit: possibly you slipped from calculating friction to calculating GPE and did not mention it.
 
  • #12
There are normal force and gravity too
Can I find Work by minus the final energy(potential) with inital energy(kinetic)

Solving this problem for 3 days really make me feel bad about myself but I will feel worse if just leaving it like this :/
 
  • #13
Pao44445 said:
There are normal force and gravity too
Can I find Work by minus the final energy(potential) with inital energy(kinetic)
Right you are. And yes, the work done by friction plus the work done by the normal force will be equal to the change in (potential plus kinetic) energy. You can ignore the work done by the force of gravity as long as you are already accounting for it as gravitational potential energy.
 
  • #14
Pao44445 said:
what do you mean about the brick gained or lost PE?
I read your term (0.5)(-9.8)(dsin25) as being the change in PE, but the sign is wrong.
jbriggs444 said:
That is not correct. There are two other forces acting on the object.
Because of the above, I presumed that had been a typo, a missing 'not'.
 
  • #15
@haruspex, I was thinking of the normal force. Irrelevant to work done, but for completeness...
 
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  • #16
jbriggs444 said:
@haruspex, I was thinking of the normal force. Irrelevant to work done, but for completeness...
Yes, I realized that just after posting, wasn't quick enough in my editing.
 
  • #17
sss.png

Did I miss something? I guess I will never find answer until I can draw correctly
 
  • #18
Pao44445 said:
View attachment 105424
Did I miss something? I guess I will never find answer until I can draw correctly
That is correct, as long as you bear in mind that the mg sin(25) and mg cos(25) terms replace the mg term. They should not really all be shown in the same diagram.
 
  • #19
here is my final equation

PE - KE = Fdcosθ
mgh - 1/2mv2 = ( μmgcos25+mgsin25 ) d cos180
gh - 1/2v2 = [ μg(0.9) + g(0.42) ] d (-1)
(-9.8)(dsin25) - 1/2(2)2 = [ (0.150)(-9.8)(0.9) + (-9.8)(0.42) ] d (-1)
(-9.8)(d)(0.42) - 2 = [ -1.323 + -4.116 ] d (-1)
-4.14d-2 = 5.44d
d = -2/ (5.44+4.14)
d = -0.20 m


and again the displacement is negative it means the direction of the displacement is opposite of the friction , What if I want displacement to be positive?
 
  • #20
Pao44445 said:
(-9.8)(dsin25)
You still have not taken into account my comment about the sign in post #14. If you are measuring d as positive up the slope (which you appear to be doing by putting a cos(180) on the right hand side of the equation) then your expression for the gain in PE is negative. That is obviously not right.
m(-9.8)(dsin25) is the work done by gravity. The gain in PE is minus that.
It is so easy to get the wrong signs in these equations that it is essential to do a sanity check each time. Did it make sense here that the gain in PE is negative?
 
  • #21
hmm I forgot that we don't care about the direction when talking about energy

(9.8)(dsin25) - 1/2(2)2 = [ (0.150)(-9.8)(0.9) + (-9.8)(0.42) ] d (-1)
(9.8)(d)(0.42) - 2 = [ -1.323 + -4.116 ] d (-1)
4.14d - 2 = 5.44d
d = -2/ (5.44-4.14)
d = -1.5 m


hm the the answer is much higher than my friend ( 0.36m )
He used this equation to solve this

E1 + Wf = E2
1/2mv2 + μmgcosθd = mgdsinθ
2 + 1.33d = -4.14d
d = 2/ (-4.14-1.33)
d = 0.36m
 
Last edited:
  • #22
Pao44445 said:
mgh - 1/2mv2 = ( μmgcos25+mgsin25 ) d cos180
Just noticed you have indeed made the error I warned of in post #18. You have counted the work against gravity twice over. You have counted it in the gain in PE on the left of the equation and again as a component of F on the right hand side.
 
  • #23
mgh - 1/2mv2 = (μmgcosθ)(d)(cosθ)
swap
μmgcosθd(cosθ) + 1/2mv2 = mgdsinθ


the equation looks similar to my friend's but why his μmgcosθd doesn't have cosθ?

E1 + Wf = E2
1/2mv2 + μmgcosθd = mgdsinθ
 
  • #24
Pao44445 said:
mgh - 1/2mv2 = (μmgcosθ)(d)(cosθ)
swap
μmgcosθd(cosθ) + 1/2mv2 = mgdsinθ


the equation looks similar to my friend's but why his μmgcosθd doesn't have cosθ?

E1 + Wf = E2
1/2mv2 + μmgcosθd = mgdsinθ
μmgcosθ is the frictional force down the slope. You would multiply that by the distance over which the force acted, d. Why would you multiply by cos θ again?
 
  • #25
haruspex said:
μmgcosθ is the frictional force down the slope. You would multiply that by the distance over which the force acted, d. Why would you multiply by cos θ again?

I thought theta is angle between F and d, doesn't it?
 
  • #26
Pao44445 said:
I thought theta is angle between F and d, doesn't it?
F is the frictional force, ##\mu mg\cos(\theta)##, right? That acts parallel to the slope, downwards. The displacement, d, is parallel to the slope, upwards. So what is the angle between them?
 
  • #27
haruspex said:
F is the frictional force, ##\mu mg\cos(\theta)##, right? That acts parallel to the slope, downwards. The displacement, d, is parallel to the slope, upwards. So what is the angle between them?
180?
 
  • #28
Pao44445 said:
180?
Right. So why would you multiply by cos(25o) again?
 
  • #29
N=mgcos25o?
I need to multiply cos25 because N is not equal to mg in this situation
 
  • #30
Pao44445 said:
N=mgcos25o?
I need to multiply cos25 because N is not equal to mg in this situation
Yes, and you multiply that by mu to get the frictional force. But having done that you now have a force antiparallel to the displacement. So why did you multiply it by cos(25) again?
 

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