Calculating Orbital Angular Momentum: What Is the Correct Answer?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating orbital angular momentum, specifically through the evaluation of an integral involving spherical harmonics. The original poster expresses confusion regarding the results of their calculations compared to an expected outcome.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to calculate an integral but receives a different result than expected, prompting them to seek clarification on their mistake. Some participants point out missing elements in the integrand, while others suggest algebraic methods to simplify the process without direct integration.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging in the discussion, with some providing insights into potential errors and suggesting alternative approaches. There is a focus on understanding the mathematical properties involved, particularly regarding spherical harmonics and their integrals.

Contextual Notes

There are indications of missing information in the original setup, such as the integrand's components, which are under scrutiny. The discussion also reflects on the learning process related to integrating such functions.

Martin89
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Homework Statement


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Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


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Hi All,

My problem is that when I calculate this integral or use software to do it for me I get (3*i*pi)/16, when I've been told that the answer is 1/2i giving a probability of 1/4. Would someone be able to point out where my mistake is.

Thanks
 

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You are missing a ##\sin\theta## in the integrand, ##d\Omega =\sin \theta d\theta d\phi##.
 
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kuruman said:
You are missing a ##\sin\theta## in the integrand, ##d\Omega =\sin \theta d\theta d\phi##.
So I have, thanks for the spot!
 
At some point you will learn to do such integrals without actually integrating. You can easily show with a bit of algebra that$$ -\sqrt{\frac{3}{8\pi}}\sin\theta \sin \phi=\frac{1}{2i} \left(Y_{1,1}+Y_{1,-1}\right)~;~~~-\sqrt{\frac{3}{8\pi}}i\cos\theta=-\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}Y_{1,0}$$so that $$X_{1,1}=\frac{1}{2i} \left(Y_{1,1}+Y_{1,-1}\right)-\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}Y_{1,0}$$ and then use the orthonormality property of the spherical harmonics, ##\int Y^*_{l,m}Y_{l',m'}d\Omega=\delta_{ll'}\delta_{mm'}## to get the answer. Clearly, only the integral involving ##Y_{1,1}## is non-zero.
 
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kuruman said:
At some point you will learn to do such integrals without actually integrating. You can easily show with a bit of algebra that$$ -\sqrt{\frac{3}{8\pi}}\sin\theta \sin \phi=\frac{1}{2i} \left(Y_{1,1}+Y_{1,-1}\right)~;~~~-\sqrt{\frac{3}{8\pi}}i\cos\theta=-\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}Y_{1,0}$$so that $$X_{1,1}=\frac{1}{2i} \left(Y_{1,1}+Y_{1,-1}\right)-\frac{i}{\sqrt{2}}Y_{1,0}$$ and then use the orthonormality property of the spherical harmonics, ##\int Y^*_{l,m}Y_{l',m'}d\Omega=\delta_{ll'}\delta_{mm'}## to get the answer. Clearly, only the integral involving ##Y_{1,1}## is non-zero.

Or I can calculate the probability directly from the the sum of the squares of the coefficients as they must equal unity. Thanks again for the help!
 

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