Calculating Power Series Coefficients with Differentiability

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the calculation of power series coefficients using differentiability properties. It establishes that for a power series defined as f(x)=∑_{n=0}^{∞}a(n)x^{n}, if f(x) is infinitely differentiable, then the coefficients are given by the formula n!a(n)=D^{n}f(0). The conversation also highlights that while the series may not be of Taylor type, the relationship holds for finite n. Additionally, it notes that the power series expansion of a C^{∞} function is unique and aligns with its Taylor series at a given point.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of power series and their convergence
  • Familiarity with differentiability and C^{∞} functions
  • Knowledge of Taylor series and Lagrange remainder
  • Basic calculus, particularly derivatives and factorials
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of power series convergence and radius of convergence
  • Learn about Taylor series and the conditions for their convergence
  • Explore the Lagrange remainder theorem in detail
  • Investigate the implications of differentiability on function representation
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students studying calculus and analysis, and anyone interested in the properties of power series and their applications in function approximation.

Karlisbad
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Let be the powe series:

[tex]f(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a(n)x^{n}[/tex]

then if f(x) is infinitely many times differentiable then for every n we have:

[tex]n!a(n)=D^{n}f(0)[/tex] (1) of course we don't know if the series above is

of the Taylor type, but (1) works nice to get a(n) at least for finite n.
 
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Do you have a question?

Btw - if the radius of convergence of

[tex]\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a(n)x^{n}[/tex]

is R, then for all -R<x<+R, define

[tex]f(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a(n)x^{n}[/tex]

Then automatically, f defined in this way is [itex]C^{\infty}[/itex] because that is a property of power series. and additionally, the coefficients are related to f by [itex]n!a(n)=D^{n}f(0)[/itex].

On the other hand, if you start with a function f(x), that you know is [itex]C^{\infty}[/itex] on some interval (-a,a), and you define the series

[tex]\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{D^{n}f(0)}{n!}x^{n}[/tex]

then the function g(x), defined by the value of the series where it converges, i.e.

[tex]g(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{D^{n}f(0)}{n!}x^{n} \ \ \ x\in(-R,R)[/tex]

is not necessarily f(x). Although by the above, we do have that [itex]n!a(n)=D^{n}g(0)[/itex]*, as you pointed out in your thread. It's a little subtlety.

*(which in this case expresses the equality [itex]D^{n}g(0)=D^{n}f(0)[/itex])

There are theorems however that give conditions for the equality of g(x) to f(x). One of them requires that the Lagrange remainder from Taylor's formula vanishes as [itex]n\rightarrow \infty[/itex].
 
Last edited:
Karlisbad said:
Let be the powe series:

[tex]f(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a(n)x^{n}[/tex]

then if f(x) is infinitely many times differentiable then for every n we have:

[tex]n!a(n)=D^{n}f(0)[/tex] (1) of course we don't know if the series above is

of the Taylor type, but (1) works nice to get a(n) at least for finite n.
The power series expansion, about [itex]x= x_0[/itex] of a [itex]C^\infty[/itex] function is unique. It doesn't matter how you get it, it will be identical to the Taylor's series for the function about that point.
 

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