Calculating Reflection Coefficient for a Potential Well

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The discussion focuses on calculating the reflection coefficient for a particle encountering a potential well, where the potential is zero for x<0 and Vo for x>0. The reflection coefficient is defined as R = (B*B)/(A*A), with A and B representing coefficients for the wave functions in the respective regions. Participants analyze the time-independent Schrödinger equation for both regions and attempt to match boundary conditions at x=0. There are concerns about the signs and terms in the equations, particularly regarding the presence of k1 and the minus sign in the differential equations. The conclusion emphasizes confusion over the derived coefficients leading to an incorrect reflection coefficient of R=1, suggesting a misunderstanding in the application of boundary conditions.
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Homework Statement


A potential well with V(x)=0 for x<0 and V(x) = Vo for x>0. The particle has energy E greater than Vo and is incident from the left side. Calculate the reflection coefficient.

Homework Equations



Relfection coefficient is given by R= (B*B)/(A*A)

The Attempt at a Solution


I think that the time independent Schrodinger equation for the two regions are
x<0 (-hbar/2m)dphisquared/dphi =Ephi(x)
and
x>0 ((-hbar/2m)dphisquared/dphi +Vo phi = Ephi(x)

the solutions to this
x<0 Aexp(ik1x) +Bexp(-ik1x) = phi(x)
x>0 Cexp(ik2x)

is this right
carrying this through and equating two solutions at x=0
A+b = C
and equating differentials at x=0 gives
ik1(A-B) = -ik2C/k1

but when I solve for A and B i get
A=(c/2)(1-ik2/k1)
B=(c/2)(1+ik2/k1)

when I find R i get R=1 which must wrong because particle is not always reflected it should pass over the potential barrier?
 
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Things started to break down when you evaluated the derivatives. Why is there a k1 on the left side? And why didn't the i's cancel out in the final solution?
 
ik1(A-B) = -ik2C/k1
Apart from the extra k1 on the left side which Dick pointed out, why is there a minus sign on the right side?
 
sorry should the differentials be (A-B)=-ik2C/k1?
in which case i still get the same solutions for A and B and a coefficient of 1
 
Why is there a minus sign on the left hand side?
 

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