Calculating Temporal Average of Sin^2 Function

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the temporal average of the function \(\sin^2(\vec{k} \cdot \vec{r} - \omega t)\) over specified intervals \(T = \tau\) and \(T \gg \tau\). The original poster expresses confusion regarding the problem's requirements and seeks clarification on whether they need to prove the average equals \(\frac{1}{2}\) for both cases.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the interpretation of the problem, with some suggesting that the goal is to demonstrate the average value of the function for the specified intervals. Others mention potential methods involving graphical analysis and trigonometric identities.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with participants offering insights and expressing willingness to explore the problem further. Some guidance has been provided regarding possible approaches, but no consensus has been reached on the exact requirements of the problem.

Contextual Notes

The original poster indicates a lack of clarity in the problem statement, which may affect their ability to proceed. There are also references to specific mathematical techniques that could be relevant to the solution.

fluidistic
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Homework Statement


The temporal average of a function f(t) over an interval T is given by [tex]\langle f(t) \rangle=\frac{1}{T} \int _{t}^{t+T} f(t') dt'[/tex].
Let [tex]\tau =\frac{2 \pi}{\omega}[/tex]. Calulate the temporal average of [tex]\langle \sin ^2 (\vec k \cdot \vec r - \omega t) \rangle =\frac{1}{2}[/tex], when [tex]T=\tau[/tex] and [tex]T >> \tau[/tex].

Homework Equations


Already given in the problem description.

The Attempt at a Solution


I don't understand the problem. Aren't they asking me to prove that [tex]\langle \sin ^2 (\vec k \cdot \vec r - \omega t) \rangle =\frac{1}{2}[/tex] for [tex]T=\tau[/tex] and to calculate [tex]\langle \sin ^2 (\vec k \cdot \vec r - \omega t) \rangle[/tex] for [tex]T>> \tau[/tex]? If so, it's really not clear. If not, could you please explain with a bit more details? I can't start the problem since I don't understand it.
 
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Looks to me like the question is asking you to show that

[tex]\left\langle \sin^2\left[\vec{k}\cdot\vec{r}-\omega t\right]\right\rangle=\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

for both [itex]T=\tau[/itex] and [itex]T\gg\tau[/itex].
 
jdwood983 said:
Looks to me like the question is asking you to show that

[tex]\left\langle \sin^2\left[\vec{k}\cdot\vec{r}-\omega t\right]\right\rangle=\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

for both [itex]T=\tau[/itex] and [itex]T\gg\tau[/itex].

Ok thanks a lot. I'll give some tries. :smile:
 
The first case, [itex]T=\tau[/itex] can be easily done with a useful trick...if you graph sin^2(u) and cos^2(u) over a full period, you should see that the area under them is equal and so

[tex]\int_{u_0}^{u_0+2\pi}\sin^2(u)du=\int_{u_0}^{u_0+2\pi}\cos^2(u)du=\frac{1}{2}\left(\int_{u_0}^{u_0+2\pi}\sin^2(u)du+\int_{u_0}^{u_0+2\pi}\cos^2(u)du\right)=\frac{1}{2}\int_{u_0}^{u_0+2\pi}du=\pi[/tex]

For the second case, I think you will want to use the double angle formula, and then expand your result in a Taylor series.
 

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