The angle in radians is used when calculating the distance between the virtual sources of Fresnel's biprism due to the small angle approximation, where sin(α) closely approximates α in radians. The formula for separation is d = 2(μ – 1) sin(α) y1, which simplifies to d = 2(μ – 1) α y1 for small angles. An example calculation shows that 2 degrees converts to approximately 0.0349 radians, aligning with the small angle approximation. A correction was noted in the calculations, emphasizing the need to use π when converting degrees to radians. Accurate calculations are crucial for precise results in optical experiments involving Fresnel's biprism.
#1
Shovon00000
3
0
Why is the angle in radians when we calculate the distance between the virtual sources of Fresnel's biprism??
Why is the angle in radians when we calculate the distance between the virtual sources of Fresnel's biprism??
The formula (using your symbols) for the separation between the sources is really:
##d = 2(\mu – 1) sin(\alpha) y_1##.
But since ##\alpha## is small, we can use the small angle approximation. There is very little difference between the values of ##sin(\alpha)## and ##\alpha## in radians.
##2º = 2 \times \frac {\pi}{180}## radians ##= \frac {\pi}{90}## radians ##= 0.0349## radians
##sin(2º) = 0.0349##
(Check it for yourself on a calculator.)
So we simplify the above formula to:
##d = 2(\mu – 1) \alpha y_1##.
By the way, the working in your attachment has a mistake. It says:
##d = \frac {2(1.5 – 1) \times 10} {90} = ...##
but it should say:
##d = \frac {2(1.5 – 1) \times \pi \times 10} {90} = ...##
Do we even know? My understanding of dark energy is that particles come into existence, exert and outward force, then vanish. My problem with that is how, of course, then how does dark energy know to push everything in the same direction? The pressure exerted would be in all directions, even if the space was moving so why isn't stuff pushed all over the sky?
Thanks - rev