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## Main Question or Discussion Point

Hi all,

First time poster here and I'm stuck with what for me seems to be a simple problem. The situation is this:

I have a 100mm diameter pipe connected to a steam kettle, which produces steam at a constant 0.3barG. This pipe is split up into 4 50mm pipes, each pipe has a valve at the end that can be opened and closed and an orifice downstream with a diameter of 37mm. The pressure after the valve is atmospheric (0 barG). The manufacturer has given me a figure of consumption of steam per hour, although I do not know under which conditions this number is calculated. The steam passing through has a temperature of 108C, which corresponds to the pressure.

I want to calculate the velocity of the steam when its passing through the orifice (and the velocity when no orifice is applied). I know it has something to do with bernoulli's law and I tried using the calculators at TLV.com, however I seem to get contradictory answers.

F.e. when I calculate the flow rate through the orifice and use that number to calculate the velocity through the pipe (flow rate is constant throughout the pipe?) I get results which would indicate that not using an orifice increases the velocity, which (of course?) is not true.

Can anybody point me in the right direction?

Thanks in advance!

First time poster here and I'm stuck with what for me seems to be a simple problem. The situation is this:

I have a 100mm diameter pipe connected to a steam kettle, which produces steam at a constant 0.3barG. This pipe is split up into 4 50mm pipes, each pipe has a valve at the end that can be opened and closed and an orifice downstream with a diameter of 37mm. The pressure after the valve is atmospheric (0 barG). The manufacturer has given me a figure of consumption of steam per hour, although I do not know under which conditions this number is calculated. The steam passing through has a temperature of 108C, which corresponds to the pressure.

I want to calculate the velocity of the steam when its passing through the orifice (and the velocity when no orifice is applied). I know it has something to do with bernoulli's law and I tried using the calculators at TLV.com, however I seem to get contradictory answers.

F.e. when I calculate the flow rate through the orifice and use that number to calculate the velocity through the pipe (flow rate is constant throughout the pipe?) I get results which would indicate that not using an orifice increases the velocity, which (of course?) is not true.

Can anybody point me in the right direction?

Thanks in advance!