Calculation of the Berry connection for a 2x2 Hamiltonian

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the calculation of the Berry connection for a 2x2 Hamiltonian represented as \( H = a\sigma_x + c\sigma_z \). The eigenvalues are determined to be \( E_{\pm} = \pm r \), and the eigenvector associated with the negative eigenvalue is given by \( |-\rangle = (r^2 - 2r\sin(\theta) + 1)^{-1/2} (\sin(\theta) - r, \cos(\theta))^T \). A critical error identified is that the eigenvectors should not depend on \( r \), as \( r \) is merely a multiplicative factor in the Hamiltonian, which affects the eigenvalues but not the eigenvectors. This distinction is crucial for correctly calculating the Berry connection and ensuring the resulting Berry phase is real.

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Silicon-Based
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Homework Statement
Calculate the Berry connection
Relevant Equations
$$
A_R = i\langle \psi | \nabla_R| \psi \rangle
$$
This isn't technically a homework problem, but I'm trying to check my understanding of the geometric phase by explicitly calculating the Berry connection for a simple 2x2 Hamiltonian that is not a textbook example of a spin-1/2 particle in a three dimensional magnetic field solved via a Bloch sphere representation and my results don't make sense. Suppose I have the Hamiltonian
$$
H = a\sigma_x+c\sigma_z =
\begin{pmatrix}
c & a\\
a & -c
\end{pmatrix}
$$ To simplify the calculations slightly I switch to polar coordinates using $$a=r\cos(\theta)$$ and $$c=r\sin(\theta).$$ The eigenvalues of the Hamiltonian are
$$
E_{\pm}=\pm r
$$ and the eigenvector associated with the negative eigenvalue becomes
$$
|-\rangle = (r^2-2r\sin(\theta)+1)^{-1/2} (\sin(\theta)-r,\cos(\theta))^T
$$ It is evident from the expression for the above eigenvector that the Berry connection for this eigenstate, which for the $r$-component is defined as
$$
A_r = i\langle - | \frac{\partial}{\partial r} |- \rangle,
$$ will be purely imaginary. This is obviously wrong as the Berry phase, which is the integral over the Berry connection, must be real, but I'm confused as to why my calculations are incorrect. In the textbook examples of a spin-1/2 particle, there is a convenient phase factor of $e^{i\phi}$ present in the eigenstates, which results in a real value for the $\phi$-component of the Berry connection upon differentiation, unlike in the example above.
 
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Silicon-Based said:
Suppose I have the Hamiltonian
$$
H = a\sigma_x+c\sigma_z =
\begin{pmatrix}
c & a\\
a & -c
\end{pmatrix}
$$ To simplify the calculations slightly I switch to polar coordinates using $$a=r\cos(\theta)$$ and $$c=r\sin(\theta).$$ The eigenvalues of the Hamiltonian are
$$
E_{\pm}=\pm r
$$ and the eigenvector associated with the negative eigenvalue becomes
$$
|-\rangle = (r^2-2r\sin(\theta)+1)^{-1/2} (\sin(\theta)-r,\cos(\theta))^T
$$
Your expression for ##|-\rangle## doesn't look correct to me. Note that the Hamiltonian can be written as
$$
H = r
\begin{pmatrix}
\sin(\theta) & \cos(\theta)\\
\cos(\theta) & -\sin(\theta)
\end{pmatrix}$$
##r## appears as an overall multiplicative factor. So, the eigenvectors should not depend on ##r##.
 
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