Can (2) Be Proved Without Knowing (1)?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the relationship between two mathematical statements regarding the greatest common divisor (gcd). Statement (1) asserts that if gcd(a,b) = d, then gcd(a/d, b/d) = 1. Statement (2) claims that if gcd(a,b) = d, then gcd(m,n) = 1, where dm = a and dn = b. The user expresses uncertainty about proving statement (2) independently of statement (1), despite recognizing that both statements are closely related and that the proof for one can be adapted for the other.

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Homework Statement



(1). If gcd(a,b) = d , gcd(a/d,b/d)=1

(2). If gcd(a,b) = d , then gcd(m,n) = 1 , where dm=a, dn=b
(i don't know wether this statement is correct)

Homework Equations



n/a

The Attempt at a Solution



i kow how to prove (1) and (2), but i only proof (2) using (1), my professor applying that (2) without us knowing what (1) is. seeming that they are other direct and obvious ways for proving (2),
so is there any? i can't see T_T
 
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(1) and (2) says exactly the same thing. The same proof will work for both.
 

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