member 428835
hey pf!
so if i have a vector field [itex]\vec{V}[/itex] and i know [itex]\nabla \cdot \vec{V}=0[/itex] would i be able to express [itex]\vec{V}[/itex] in the following manner: [itex]\vec{V}= \nabla \times \vec{f}[/itex] for some [itex]\vec{f}[/itex]since we know this automatically satisfies the divergent free requirement?
if not, what must be assumed in order to claim that such an [itex]\vec{f}[/itex] exists?
thanks for your time!
josh
so if i have a vector field [itex]\vec{V}[/itex] and i know [itex]\nabla \cdot \vec{V}=0[/itex] would i be able to express [itex]\vec{V}[/itex] in the following manner: [itex]\vec{V}= \nabla \times \vec{f}[/itex] for some [itex]\vec{f}[/itex]since we know this automatically satisfies the divergent free requirement?
if not, what must be assumed in order to claim that such an [itex]\vec{f}[/itex] exists?
thanks for your time!
josh