Can a one-to-one mapping of a set into itself prove that the set is infinite?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of a one-to-one mapping of a set into itself and its implications for the set's cardinality, specifically whether such a mapping can prove that the set is infinite.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of a one-to-one mapping and its relationship to cardinality, questioning the assumptions about finite and infinite sets. There is an attempt to clarify the distinction between one-to-one and onto mappings.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing insights into the nature of mappings and cardinality. Some guidance has been offered regarding the relationship between the mapping and the properties of the sets involved, but there is no explicit consensus on the definitions being used.

Contextual Notes

There is a focus on the definitions of one-to-one and onto mappings, with some participants noting that the original poster's assumptions may not fully address the implications of the mapping being onto.

cragar
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Homework Statement


Let X be a set and let f be a one-to-one mapping of X into itself such that
[itex]f[X] \subset X[/itex] Then X is infinite.

The Attempt at a Solution


Let's assume for the sake of contradiction that X is finite and there is an f such that it maps all of the elements of X to a proper subset of X called Y. And this function also preserves the 1-to-1 mapping. If Y is a proper subset then |Y|<|X| and if X is finite then
Y is also finite, but there is a problem with the one to one mapping, if Y has less elements then X then there is no 1-to-1 mapping. So this is a contradiction of our original assumption therefore X is infinite.
 
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The reasoning is correct in general, but perhaps somewhat informal. Formally, you could recall that a one-to-one mapping of two sets implies that the two sets have equal cardinality. And for finite sets, cardinality is simply the number of their elements.
 
voko said:
The reasoning is correct in general, but perhaps somewhat informal. Formally, you could recall that a one-to-one mapping of two sets implies that the two sets have equal cardinality. And for finite sets, cardinality is simply the number of their elements.

I think you are thinking of mappings that are both one-to-one and onto. If the mapping is only one to one, then the cardinalities don't need to be equal -- there for example certainly is a one to one mapping from N to R, f(x) = x.
 
clamtrox said:
I think you are thinking of mappings that are both one-to-one and onto. If the mapping is only one to one, then the cardinalities don't need to be equal -- there for example certainly is a one to one mapping from N to R, f(x) = x.

No, what I mean is that the cardinality of the image of X (where f is onto) must be equal to that of X. Invoking the finiteness of X completes the proof.
 
voko said:
No, what I mean is that the cardinality of the image of X (where f is onto) must be equal to that of X. Invoking the finiteness of X completes the proof.
"
But nothing is said about f being "onto".
 
HallsofIvy said:
"
But nothing is said about f being "onto".

Any map is "onto" its image.
 

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