Can F_1,2 Be Defined Using r-hat_2,1 Instead of r-hat_1,2?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the possibility of defining F_1,2 using r-hat_2,1 instead of r-hat_1,2. Participants confirm that this is feasible, provided that the opposite directions of the vectors are considered. The key takeaway is that the directionality of the vectors must be accounted for when making such definitions in vector analysis.

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Ryan McParlan
In this example (https://imgur.com/a/pTFIt) could i define F_1,2 in terms of r-hat_2,1 instead of r-hat_1,2?
 
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Ryan McParlan said:
In this example (https://imgur.com/a/pTFIt) could i define F_1,2 in terms of r-hat_2,1 instead of r-hat_1,2?
Sure, why not? As long as you take into account that they have opposite directions.
 

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