Can Factorials Cause Divergence? Investigating the Divergence Test for Series

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The series \(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{n!}{2^{n}}\) diverges as established through the Divergence Test. The key condition for divergence is that \(\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} a_n \nexists\), which was confirmed by analyzing the factorial growth in the numerator compared to the exponential growth in the denominator. The user initially attempted to apply L'Hôpital's Rule incorrectly, mistaking the behavior of \(n!\) as approximately \(n\). Ultimately, the correct approach involved recognizing that the limit does not exist, confirming divergence.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of the Divergence Test for series
  • Familiarity with factorial notation and properties
  • Basic knowledge of limits in calculus
  • Experience with L'Hôpital's Rule
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of factorial growth compared to exponential functions
  • Learn more about the application of the Divergence Test in series
  • Explore advanced techniques for analyzing series convergence and divergence
  • Review L'Hôpital's Rule and its correct applications in limit problems
USEFUL FOR

Students studying calculus, particularly those focusing on series and convergence tests, as well as educators teaching these concepts in mathematics courses.

Je m'appelle
Messages
117
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Show that the following series diverges

\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{n!}{2^{n}}

Homework Equations



The Divergence Test: In order for a series to be divergent, the following must be true

\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} a_n \neq 0, or

\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} a_n \nexists

The Attempt at a Solution



Alright, I know how to work it out with the denominator, as it is a geometric series and therefore as n \rightarrow \infty,\ 2^{n} \rightarrow 1

But how do I do whenever I find a factorial? How do I work it out? I don't know what to do with this factorial, can I assume the following in this case

As n \rightarrow \infty,

n! \approx n

Then as n \rightarrow \infty it would summarize to

a_n = \frac{n}{2^{n}}, so by using L'hôpital's

\frac{\frac{d}{dn}n}{\frac{d}{dn} 2^{n}}

\frac{1}{2^{n}}, and then as n \rightarrow \infty,

\frac{1}{1} = 1 \neq 0Is this it?
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
No.
n!=n(n-1)(n-2)... *3*(2)*(1) [ n terms]
2^{n}= 2*2*... *2 n times.

I have no idea what you are doing there.

Please write the expansion of n! and 2^{n} as the numerator and denominator then try to see why the limit does not exist.
 
Nevermind what I wrote before.

I was trying to show that the series was divergent by \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} a_n \neq 0, but that's not possible because the limit doesn't exist, that's why I messed up. But by using \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} a_n \nexists it can be shown that the series diverge. I had forgotten this second case and that's why I did some mess before on working out the first case heh.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
17
Views
3K
Replies
14
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K