Can Limits and Simple Functions Approximate Extended Real Functions?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the approximation of extended real functions using limits and simple functions. Participants explore the validity of certain limit expressions and the implications of using indicator functions in approximating extended real functions.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Wayne asserts that \(\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}[0,n) = \cup_{n\in\mathbb{N}}[0,n) = [0,\infty)\) and questions whether \(\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}[0,n] = [0,\infty)\) is also true, suggesting it should not be \([0,\infty]\).
  • Wayne proposes that when using the simple function \(f_n = f 1_{f\leq n}\), the limit may only approximate \(f 1_{f < \infty}\), raising concerns about the approximation being valid almost everywhere unless the measure of the set where \(f = \infty\) is zero.
  • Another participant confirms Wayne's first statement about the limit but expresses confusion regarding the second question, specifically asking about the meaning of the symbol 1 in the expression for \(f_n\).
  • A later reply clarifies that the symbol 1 refers to the indicator function.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the validity of the first limit statement, but there is uncertainty and lack of consensus regarding the implications of the second question about the approximation of extended real functions.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes unresolved interpretations of limit expressions and the role of the indicator function in approximating extended real functions, with some assumptions about measure and convergence remaining unaddressed.

wayneckm
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Hello all,


I have a few questions in my mind:

1) [tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}[0,n) = \cup_{n\in\mathbb{N}}[0,n) = [0,infty)[/tex] holds, and for [tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}[0,n] = \cup_{n\in\mathbb{N}}[0,n] = [0,infty)[/tex] is also true? It should not be [tex][0,infty][/tex], am I correct?

2) Consider an extended real function [tex]f[/tex], if we use simple function [tex]f_{n} = f 1_{f\leq n}[/tex], by taking limit, we can only have it approximated to [tex]f 1_{f < \infty}[/tex] but since [tex]f[/tex] may take [tex]\infty[/tex], such simple function may not be approximating [tex]f[/tex] almost everywhere unless [tex]f = \infty[/tex] is of measure 0?

Am I correct? Thanks.


Wayne
 
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Your first statement is correct. I can't figure out the second question - the symbol 1 after f in the expression fn= means what?
 
Help me out here. What does
[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}[0,n)[/tex]
mean? Or were you just defining it as
[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}[0,n) := \cup_{n\in\mathbb{N}}[0,n)\?[/tex]
 
the symbol 1 here means the indicator function.

Thanks.
 

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