wayneckm
- 66
- 0
Hello all,
I have a few questions in my mind:
1) [tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}[0,n) = \cup_{n\in\mathbb{N}}[0,n) = [0,infty)[/tex] holds, and for [tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}[0,n] = \cup_{n\in\mathbb{N}}[0,n] = [0,infty)[/tex] is also true? It should not be [tex][0,infty][/tex], am I correct?
2) Consider an extended real function [tex]f[/tex], if we use simple function [tex]f_{n} = f 1_{f\leq n}[/tex], by taking limit, we can only have it approximated to [tex]f 1_{f < \infty}[/tex] but since [tex]f[/tex] may take [tex]\infty[/tex], such simple function may not be approximating [tex]f[/tex] almost everywhere unless [tex]f = \infty[/tex] is of measure 0?
Am I correct? Thanks.
Wayne
I have a few questions in my mind:
1) [tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}[0,n) = \cup_{n\in\mathbb{N}}[0,n) = [0,infty)[/tex] holds, and for [tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}[0,n] = \cup_{n\in\mathbb{N}}[0,n] = [0,infty)[/tex] is also true? It should not be [tex][0,infty][/tex], am I correct?
2) Consider an extended real function [tex]f[/tex], if we use simple function [tex]f_{n} = f 1_{f\leq n}[/tex], by taking limit, we can only have it approximated to [tex]f 1_{f < \infty}[/tex] but since [tex]f[/tex] may take [tex]\infty[/tex], such simple function may not be approximating [tex]f[/tex] almost everywhere unless [tex]f = \infty[/tex] is of measure 0?
Am I correct? Thanks.
Wayne