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if i have a lim of f(x)*g(x) can i say it is limf(x)*limg(x) like i could if i had lim of f(x)+g(x),
more specifically, in my homework i have a question where,
lim f(x) converges
x->inf
lim g(x) diverges
x->inf
and i am asked about convergence of lim u(x) when
1) u(x)=f(x)+g(x)
2) u(x)=f(x)*g(x)
for 1) i say
lim f(x)+g(x)= lim f(x) + lim g(x)====> diverges
for 2) I am not sure, but i think
if f(X) converges to any number, K*inf=inf and u(x) diverges
if f(X) converges to 0 , then 0*inf is undefined and u(x) diverges
1st of all i am not 100% that i am right, second of all how do i prove this MATHEMATICALLY?
more specifically, in my homework i have a question where,
lim f(x) converges
x->inf
lim g(x) diverges
x->inf
and i am asked about convergence of lim u(x) when
1) u(x)=f(x)+g(x)
2) u(x)=f(x)*g(x)
for 1) i say
lim f(x)+g(x)= lim f(x) + lim g(x)====> diverges
for 2) I am not sure, but i think
if f(X) converges to any number, K*inf=inf and u(x) diverges
if f(X) converges to 0 , then 0*inf is undefined and u(x) diverges
1st of all i am not 100% that i am right, second of all how do i prove this MATHEMATICALLY?