Can Set Union Have an Additive Inverse Like Real Numbers?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the concept of additive inverses in set theory, specifically regarding set union. It is established that there is no axiom for set union analogous to the "Existence of additive inverses" in real numbers, as no non-empty set A can satisfy the condition A ∪ X = ∅ for any set X. The only set that possesses an inverse in this context is the empty set, denoted as ∅. Additionally, the discussion highlights that subtraction is not commutative, illustrated by the example where b - a ≠ a - b unless a = b.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of set theory concepts, particularly set union.
  • Familiarity with the properties of real numbers, including additive inverses.
  • Knowledge of commutative and non-commutative operations in mathematics.
  • Basic mathematical notation and symbols used in set theory.
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the properties of set operations, focusing on union and intersection.
  • Explore the concept of additive inverses in various mathematical structures.
  • Study the implications of commutativity and non-commutativity in algebraic operations.
  • Examine mathematical notation and conventions used in formal proofs and discussions.
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students of mathematics, and educators seeking to deepen their understanding of set theory and its foundational principles.

paulmdrdo1
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1.show that there is no axiom for set union that correspond to "Existence of additive inverses" for real numbers, by demonstrating that in general it is impossible to find a set X such that $A\cup X=\emptyset$. what is the only set $\emptyset$ which possesses an inverse in this sense?

2. show that the operation of subtraction is not commutative,that is, it is possible to find real numbers a and b such that $b-a\not = a-b$. what can be said about a and b if $b-a=a-b?$

what to do? i don't understand what question 1 is asking.
 
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paulmdrdo said:
what to do? i don't understand what question 1 is asking.
Question 1 asks you to find a set $A$ such that $A\cup X\ne\emptyset$ for all sets $X$. Such $A$ is a counterexample to the property

For every $A$ there exists an $X$ such that $A\cup X=\emptyset$ (*)

which is an analog of the "Existence of additive inverses" for real numbers. It also asks to find a unique set $A$ for which (*) is true.
 
If A is non-empty (for concreteness, let A = {a}), then A U X is also non-empty, because no matter what X is, A U X contains at least the element a.

Thus if A U X = Ø (for some X) it must be the case that A = Ø. What must X be, here?
 
X must also be empty. am i right? and evegenymakarov what does this symbol mean (*)?
 
paulmdrdo said:
X must also be empty. am i right?
Yes.

paulmdrdo said:
evegenymakarov what does this symbol mean (*)?
I denoted the statement "For every $A$ there exists an $X$ such that $A\cup X=\emptyset$" by (*) in order to refer to it later. This is often done in math texts. The label like (*) or (1) is usually located near the right page margin.
 

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