SOS2008 said:
IMO if this is updated to the present (in the U.S.), the bourgeoisie is the 10% of wealth, the doctor, lawyer, banker, and let’s substitute teacher (because teachers are no longer as revered or paid well) perhaps some IT, engineers, etc., along with the merchant class (entrepreneur/small business owner). The proletariat, or true middle class is now the teacher, nurse, (educated but lower paid, female dominated fields) along with the various skilled laborers such as electricians, etc. down to the poverty level (32,000 to 18,000).
In my area, teachers make an average of $55k, but other than that, I'm with you so far...
I’m not sure where those below poverty/homeless etc. fit in the theory then or now.
According to Marxism, that middle class should become virtually nonexistant (tiny) and the
entire working class should become impoverished under capitalism. That's the whole point of the revolution: conditions become untenable for a high fraction of the population, so they revolt. Anyway, that doesn't have a whole lot to do with my point, but apparently its just background info anyway...
With this in mind, I previously posted the article excerpt as follows:
http://slate.msn.com/id/2118237/#ContinueArticle
My response is the same as before: the simple and obvious reason why people are not troubled by the income disparity enough to organize and revolt (whether violently or non-violently) is that
the income disparity is irrelevant.
Marx’s theory provides an answer to this puzzle. As stated above, the bourgeoisie “identify themselves with the capitalists, and uphold their interests, rather than with the proletariat.” Even though the bourgeoisie is much more dependent on a healthy middle class.
Again, I agree as well, though that doesn't tell us
why. The reason why is that the middle class is
not in peril. The middle class is prospering.
However, where the theory may be wrong, is that the proletariat also identifies with the capitalists, and therefore do not experience “alienation.”
I would agree with that as well. Again, though,
why? The answer to that is The American Dream - something Marx never considered possible: total class mobility. The lower class don't want to
punish the upper class, they want to
become the upper class - and they know in the system we have, that is a possibility.
Still, Marx’s theory provides a possible answer to this phenomenon (and what I personally consider as a lottery mentality of human nature, as well as lack of reasoning due to ignorance of the “masses”):
Well...
Is this really the reason? I’ve often been bewildered as to why religious women support actions that take away their own freedoms (e.g. birth control). Well, religion is a superstructure for ideology—yes, IMO this is the reason.
That's the rub, isn't it: when someone is being
actively injured, ignorance is not an excuse. People who are being injured will tend to reject what is injuring them and look for an alternative. They do
not just sit there and take it. The birth control example is near-perfect: the Catholic Church is very near splitting over that issue (and several others) because women are
not accepting the church's position. So the only logical conclusion for why the lower/middle classes do not reject capitalism (and from the data, we see that it is correct) is that the lower/middle classes
are not being injured by capitalism.
Now, all that is interesting, but I don't see how its relevant:
So I disagree that it is the Democrats who are going around trying to brain wash everyone, and in fact this kind of accusation may be used well via “the ideologies present in a capitalist society” to “explain, justify, and support the capitalist mode of production.” It makes more sense that those with power (the 1% with wealth) would be responsible for propaganda protecting the status quo they benefit from so much—and use both political parties to that end.
Huh? First of all, I'm not claiming that democrats hold that tightly to Marxist ideas. The connection is much more vague. Regardless, maybe I see how you mean to connect this to my quote - you think the Right is brainwashing people and that is why the country is moving to the right. Trouble is, you provided a good counter-argument to this brainwashing assertion. But here's another: the US is one of the
free-est western countries, yet we are also one of the most conservative. Brainwashing and freedom are incompatible with each other - by your logic, our freedom should make us want to be more socialist, like Europe. And third, there's that pesky data which still shows that things are, in fact, getting better under capitalism.
You mean like the way EHM/multinationals hop from one country to another exploiting labor around the world (NAFTA/CAFTA)? [emphasis added]
Huh? How is the
freedom to choose where to build a manufacturing plant being forced on them? That is a completely unrelated issue - and its wrong in its own right (the part in bold), but I won't discuss it because its a diversion.
No, SOS, you know what I mean: forced equality of outcome, ie the redistribution of weath has
proven to be an economic disaster. This isn't theory or opinion, its
historical fact. The reasons why are a long discussion, but its useless to hold that discussion until you acknowledge the underlying fact. Let me phrase it in a way that may be more palateable to you:
[with the exception of a few elite] The populous of the USSR shared roughly equally in the medicrity of their economy.
Ie, few people were spared from the tiny apartments, breadlines, and lack of luxuries that characterized life in the USSR. Income equality was far "better" in the USSR than in the US, while the mean/median standard of living was far worse.
Do you acknowledge this fact?
It should be a simple one to acknowlege, but if you want some info on it,
HERE it is. Once you acknowledge it, then we can discuss
why.
And like there is allegiance to a country, or care for the environment, or care for anything except profit? Doesn’t that anger you?
I have no answer for those questions: they have nothing at all to do with the post you are responding to.
… 'we will take money from the rich and give it to you'. Or maybe the idea is that the rich should pay their fair share. Do you support tax cuts for the rich, including removal of the “Death Tax?”
Of course the rich should pay their fair share. So tell me:
what is their fair share? Yes, I support the repeal of the "death tax". It is not fair. The way the democrat party posturing works is that the rich should
never get tax cuts and the poor should
always get tax cuts. There is never any debate about what actually
is their fair share.
Guest worker amnesty, trade agreements like CAFTA—talk about leveling the playing field, and who’s tricking who? Who benefits from these things—that’s who.
As a side note, this is not just effecting the U.S. – Here’s an article entitled: "The Big Squeeze: A 'second wave' of offshoring could threaten middle-income, white-collar and skilled blue-collar jobs."
http://www.msnbc.msn.com/id/7936464/site/newsweek/site/newsweek/
I'm trying hard to relate all this to the post of mine you quoted. Its a stretch, but all I can say is: incomes are up and poverty is down, both in the US,
and in the world. Capitalism is a gift that has given to virtually everyone it has touched.