Can someone please explain overlap integrals to me?

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Overlap integrals are essential in quantum mechanics, particularly in understanding energy states of systems like the quantum harmonic oscillator. They are defined as the complex conjugate of one function multiplied by another, similar to the dot product of vectors. In the context of a single harmonic oscillator, overlap integrals between eigenstates are typically either 0 or 1 due to their orthogonality. The discussion suggests that overlap integrals may be more relevant in scenarios involving multiple harmonic oscillators or specific calculations like Franck-Condon factors. Understanding their application can clarify their importance in quantum mechanics problems.
randybryan
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I'm studying for my Quantum Mechanics course and I've understood most of it so far, until we reached the quantum harmonic oscillator. Finding the solution was no easy feat and I have to say I only had a slender grasp of the derivation, but now I'm being given questions about certain energy states that need overlap integrals. I have nothing in my nots about them. I know they're the complex conjugate of one function multiplied by another function and is equivalent to the dot product of two vectors, but where does it come from and how is it applied to the Q harmonic oscillator?
 
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randybryan said:
I'm studying for my Quantum Mechanics course and I've understood most of it so far, until we reached the quantum harmonic oscillator. Finding the solution was no easy feat and I have to say I only had a slender grasp of the derivation, but now I'm being given questions about certain energy states that need overlap integrals. I have nothing in my nots about them. I know they're the complex conjugate of one function multiplied by another function and is equivalent to the dot product of two vectors, but where does it come from and how is it applied to the Q harmonic oscillator?

Hmm ... normally one wouldn't talk about overlap integrals in the case of a single harmonic oscillator problem, right? Since all the eigenstates are orthogonal, all of the overlap integrals (which you characterized properly above, by the way), should either be 1 or 0, right?

So, are you by any chance working on a problem to calculate Franck-Condon factors? Or some other problem where you have multiple harmonic oscillators with different minima to deal with?
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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