Can You Apply the Implicit Function Theorem Correctly?

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The discussion centers on the application of the Implicit Function Theorem, specifically the conditions required for its use. It is established that for the theorem to apply, two conditions must be met: F(x_0, y_0) must equal zero, and the partial derivative with respect to y at that point must not be zero. The participants clarify that these conditions hold except at specific points (0,0) and (1,1), indicating the existence of a function g in the neighborhood of (x_0, y_0). However, there is confusion regarding how to explicitly derive the function using the theorem, with references made to the Lambert W function as a related concept. The conversation concludes with a reminder that careful attention to detail is necessary for academic rigor in applying the theorem.
Lambda96
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Homework Statement
see post
Relevant Equations
Implicit function theorem
Hi,

I'm not sure if I've understood the task here correctly

Bildschirmfoto 2024-06-30 um 22.26.21.png


For the Implicit function theorem, ##F(x,y)=0## must hold for all ##(x,y)## for which ##f(x,y)=f(x_0,y_0)## it follows that ##f(x,y)-f(x_0,y_0)=0## so I can apply the Implicit function theorem for these ##(x,y)##.

Then I can write ##x_0y_0e^{-x_0-y_0}=xye^{-x-y}## then I would have to solve the equation for ##y## and get the relation y=f(x).


This is exactly where I have my problems, unfortunately, I don't know how to solve the equation for ##y##.
 
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Try to apply the theorem literally. We start with the function ##F=f(x,y)-f(x_0,y_0)\, : \,\mathbb{R}^2\rightarrow \mathbb{R}.## Thus
$$
\dfrac{\partial F}{\partial x} =\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial x} = (1-x)ye^{-x-y}\, , \,\dfrac{\partial F}{\partial y}=(1-y)xe^{-x-y}
$$
Now ##F(x_0,y_0)=0## and ##\dfrac{\partial F}{\partial y}(x_0,y_0)=(1-y_0)x_0e^{-x_0-y_0}\neq 0## if ##x_0\neq 0 ## and ##y_0\neq 1.## What does the theorem say in this case? And what does it say about points on the ##x-##axis, except the origin?
 
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My understanding was that you need to have an invertible Jacobian at a point for F to have a local inverse for F(x1,x2,..,xn)=0. Not aware of this version.
 
WWGD said:
My understanding was that you need to have an invertible Jacobian at a point for F to have a local inverse for F(x1,x2,..,xn)=0. Not aware of this version.
I believe that the conditions described in @fresh_42's post belong to the simplified 2-D case of the multivariate theorem. Wiki link
 
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Thank you fresh_42, WGD and docnet for your help 👍 👍 👍


I think I have understood it now. In order for the Implicit function theorem to be applied, two things must be true

$$1) F(x_0, y_0)=0$$
$$2) \frac{\partial F(x_0, y_0)}{\partial y} \neq 0$$


The first condition already applies, since for all elements (x,y) of the set ##X_{x_0,y_0}## ##f(x,y)=f(x_0,y_0) \rightarrow f(x,y)-f(x_0,y_0)=0## applies according to the task


As you have already written, fresh_42 the following ##\frac{\partial F(x_0,y_0)}{\partial y}=(1-y_0)x_0e^{-x_0-y_0}## applies except for the cases ##x_0=0## and ##y_0=1##.


Since the two operations are fulfilled except for the points ##(0,0)## and ##(1,1)##, there exists a function ##g## for which all points in the neighbourhood of ##(x_0,y_0)## can be written as follows ##y=g(x)##


So the Implicit function theorem tells me that a function ##g## exists, but I can't get the function using the Implicit function theorem.
 
Lambda96 said:
Thank you fresh_42, WGD and docnet for your help 👍 👍 👍


I think I have understood it now. In order for the Implicit function theorem to be applied, two things must be true

$$1) F(x_0, y_0)=0$$
$$2) \frac{\partial F(x_0, y_0)}{\partial y} \neq 0$$


The first condition already applies, since for all elements (x,y) of the set ##X_{x_0,y_0}## ##f(x,y)=f(x_0,y_0) \rightarrow f(x,y)-f(x_0,y_0)=0## applies according to the task


As you have already written, fresh_42 the following ##\frac{\partial F(x_0,y_0)}{\partial y}=(1-y_0)x_0e^{-x_0-y_0}## applies except for the cases ##x_0=0## and ##y_0=1##.


Since the two operations are fulfilled except for the points ##(0,0)## and ##(1,1)##, there exists a function ##g## for which all points in the neighbourhood of ##(x_0,y_0)## can be written as follows ##y=g(x)##


So the Implicit function theorem tells me that a function ##g## exists, but I can't get the function using the Implicit function theorem.
The Lambert W function ##f(w)=we^w## is related. It is not really a function, only locally a.e. But you cannot write it as ##w=g(f(w)).## Here we have ##ye^{-y}=x_0y_0e^{-x_0-y_0}\cdot \dfrac{e^x}{x}=:g(x)## and like the Lambert W function, there is no explicit formula ##y=\ldots ##
 
That is a good attempt! But I the task is not complete or correct as you wrote it yet, and here is a hint: ##2)## should be a statement involving ##\frac{\partial F(x_0, y_0)}{\partial y}\neq 0## and involving ##\frac{\partial F(x_0, y_0)}{\partial x}\neq 0## linked by the proper conjunction. Think through why that is necessary to complete the task.

If I know how nitpicky TAs can be, they would likely rip it apart (I'm sorry to say).
 

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