Can You Apply the Implicit Function Theorem Correctly?

Lambda96
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Homework Statement
see post
Relevant Equations
Implicit function theorem
Hi,

I'm not sure if I've understood the task here correctly

Bildschirmfoto 2024-06-30 um 22.26.21.png


For the Implicit function theorem, ##F(x,y)=0## must hold for all ##(x,y)## for which ##f(x,y)=f(x_0,y_0)## it follows that ##f(x,y)-f(x_0,y_0)=0## so I can apply the Implicit function theorem for these ##(x,y)##.

Then I can write ##x_0y_0e^{-x_0-y_0}=xye^{-x-y}## then I would have to solve the equation for ##y## and get the relation y=f(x).


This is exactly where I have my problems, unfortunately, I don't know how to solve the equation for ##y##.
 
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Try to apply the theorem literally. We start with the function ##F=f(x,y)-f(x_0,y_0)\, : \,\mathbb{R}^2\rightarrow \mathbb{R}.## Thus
$$
\dfrac{\partial F}{\partial x} =\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial x} = (1-x)ye^{-x-y}\, , \,\dfrac{\partial F}{\partial y}=(1-y)xe^{-x-y}
$$
Now ##F(x_0,y_0)=0## and ##\dfrac{\partial F}{\partial y}(x_0,y_0)=(1-y_0)x_0e^{-x_0-y_0}\neq 0## if ##x_0\neq 0 ## and ##y_0\neq 1.## What does the theorem say in this case? And what does it say about points on the ##x-##axis, except the origin?
 
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My understanding was that you need to have an invertible Jacobian at a point for F to have a local inverse for F(x1,x2,..,xn)=0. Not aware of this version.
 
WWGD said:
My understanding was that you need to have an invertible Jacobian at a point for F to have a local inverse for F(x1,x2,..,xn)=0. Not aware of this version.
I believe that the conditions described in @fresh_42's post belong to the simplified 2-D case of the multivariate theorem. Wiki link
 
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Thank you fresh_42, WGD and docnet for your help 👍 👍 👍


I think I have understood it now. In order for the Implicit function theorem to be applied, two things must be true

$$1) F(x_0, y_0)=0$$
$$2) \frac{\partial F(x_0, y_0)}{\partial y} \neq 0$$


The first condition already applies, since for all elements (x,y) of the set ##X_{x_0,y_0}## ##f(x,y)=f(x_0,y_0) \rightarrow f(x,y)-f(x_0,y_0)=0## applies according to the task


As you have already written, fresh_42 the following ##\frac{\partial F(x_0,y_0)}{\partial y}=(1-y_0)x_0e^{-x_0-y_0}## applies except for the cases ##x_0=0## and ##y_0=1##.


Since the two operations are fulfilled except for the points ##(0,0)## and ##(1,1)##, there exists a function ##g## for which all points in the neighbourhood of ##(x_0,y_0)## can be written as follows ##y=g(x)##


So the Implicit function theorem tells me that a function ##g## exists, but I can't get the function using the Implicit function theorem.
 
Lambda96 said:
Thank you fresh_42, WGD and docnet for your help 👍 👍 👍


I think I have understood it now. In order for the Implicit function theorem to be applied, two things must be true

$$1) F(x_0, y_0)=0$$
$$2) \frac{\partial F(x_0, y_0)}{\partial y} \neq 0$$


The first condition already applies, since for all elements (x,y) of the set ##X_{x_0,y_0}## ##f(x,y)=f(x_0,y_0) \rightarrow f(x,y)-f(x_0,y_0)=0## applies according to the task


As you have already written, fresh_42 the following ##\frac{\partial F(x_0,y_0)}{\partial y}=(1-y_0)x_0e^{-x_0-y_0}## applies except for the cases ##x_0=0## and ##y_0=1##.


Since the two operations are fulfilled except for the points ##(0,0)## and ##(1,1)##, there exists a function ##g## for which all points in the neighbourhood of ##(x_0,y_0)## can be written as follows ##y=g(x)##


So the Implicit function theorem tells me that a function ##g## exists, but I can't get the function using the Implicit function theorem.
The Lambert W function ##f(w)=we^w## is related. It is not really a function, only locally a.e. But you cannot write it as ##w=g(f(w)).## Here we have ##ye^{-y}=x_0y_0e^{-x_0-y_0}\cdot \dfrac{e^x}{x}=:g(x)## and like the Lambert W function, there is no explicit formula ##y=\ldots ##
 
That is a good attempt! But I the task is not complete or correct as you wrote it yet, and here is a hint: ##2)## should be a statement involving ##\frac{\partial F(x_0, y_0)}{\partial y}\neq 0## and involving ##\frac{\partial F(x_0, y_0)}{\partial x}\neq 0## linked by the proper conjunction. Think through why that is necessary to complete the task.

If I know how nitpicky TAs can be, they would likely rip it apart (I'm sorry to say).
 
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