Charge inside of Conducting Shell

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the electric potential at the inner radius of a hollow spherical conducting shell containing a point charge q at its center. The potential at the inner radius a is determined to be Kq/b, where K is Coulomb's constant. The confusion arises from the assumption that the potential inside the shell can be calculated using Kq/a, which is incorrect due to the nature of electric fields in conductors. The potential must be consistent across the shell, leading to the conclusion that Va = Vb = Kq/b.

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Jzhang27143
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Homework Statement


A positive point charge q is located inside a neutral hollow spherical conducting shell. The shell has inner radius a and outer radius b; b − a is not negligible. The shell is centered on the origin. Assume that the point charge q is located at the origin in the very center of the shell.

a. iii. Determine the electric potential at x = a.

http://www.aapt.org/physicsteam/2015/upload/E3-2-2-solutions.pdf

Homework Equations


V = Kq/r, gauss's law

The Attempt at a Solution


Ok so the solution is in the link above. However, I don't understand why the potential at a is Kq/b. I know that the potential at A and B must be the same. If you look at it from outside the shell, the potential is Kq/r for r>b and this predicts Va = Vb = Kq/b. However, if you look at it from inside the shell, the potential is Kq/r for r<a and this predicts Va = Kq/a which is not correct. What is wrong with the second approach?
 
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Jzhang27143 said:
However, if you look at it from inside the shell, the potential is Kq/r for r<a and this predicts Va = Kq/a which is not correct.
That would be true if the field from the charge extended unbroken to infinity. But it does not. The field has a gap from r = a to r = b.
 
Jzhang27143 said:
...

Ok so the solution is in the link above. However, I don't understand why the potential at a is Kq/b. I know that the potential at A and B must be the same. If you look at it from outside the shell, the potential is Kq/r for r>b and this predicts Va = Vb = Kq/b. However, if you look at it from inside the shell, the potential is Kq/r for r<a and this predicts Va = Kq/a which is not correct. What is wrong with the second approach?
The usual convention is for the potential to be zero as r → ∞ .

If you take Va = kq/a, then the potential on the outer surface, r = b, is also kq/a rather than being kq/b. This gives a potential as r → ∞ of kq(1/a - 1/b) .
 

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