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Here is a link to a derivation of classical intrinsic angular momentum:

https://www.scribd.com/document/349675642/Potential-energy-Prop-to-SL

In 2.1 in the image above they define: ##m=2\mu S## and say that ##\mu## is the bohr magneton. By using the defintion of the bohr magneton I get ##m=2\frac{e \hbar}{2m_e}S=\frac{e \hbar}{m_e}S##. But that is the same as the relation in the classical intrinsic angular momentum derivation except that it has an extra ##\hbar## in the numerator. Anyone who knows how to derive an relation between the classical intrinsic angular momentum relation to magnetic moment and the one with an extra ##\hbar##?

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# A Classical intr. ang mom and quantum intr ang mom relation

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