Commutativity of differentiation in a special case

  • Thread starter Thread starter HotMintea
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Differentiation
Join the discussion
Registration is free. Ask a follow-up in this thread, or start your own.
3 replies · 2K views
HotMintea
Messages
42
Reaction score
0
Problem

I'd like to prove [itex]\frac{d}{dt}[\frac{\partial}{\partial{x}}f(x(t),y(t),t)]=\frac{\partial}{\partial{x}}[\frac{d}{dt}f(x(t),y(t),t)][/itex].

Attempt
[tex]\begin{equation*}\begin{split}<br /> \frac{d}{dt}[\frac{\partial}{\partial x}f(x(t),y(t),t)]=\frac{d}{dt}\lim_{\epsilon\to 0}\frac{f(x(t)+\epsilon,y(t),t)-f(x(t),y(t),t)}{\epsilon}\\<br /> =\lim_{\delta\to 0}\lim_{\epsilon\to 0} \frac{[f(x(t+\delta)+\epsilon,y(t+\delta),t+\delta)-f(x(t)+\epsilon,y(t),t)]-[f(x(t+\delta),y(t+\delta),t+\delta)-f(x(t),y(t),t)]}{\epsilon\delta}\end{split}\end{equation*}[/tex]

So if my previous steps are correct, I need to show that the 2 limits are commutative, which I have no idea...
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Thanks for the hints!

[itex]\frac{d}{dt}\partial_{x}f(x(t), y(t), t)=(\sum\dot{x}_k \partial_{x_k}+\partial_t)\partial_{x}f=\sum\dot x_k\partial_{x_k}\partial_{x}f+\partial_t\partial_{x}f[/itex].

At this point, I need to show the "equality of mixed partials". I found the proof of [itex]f_{xy}=f_{yx}[/itex] for [itex]f(x, y)[/itex] here: http://www.sju.edu/~pklingsb/clairaut.pdf

My function is f(x(t), y(t), t) so a bit different.

For proving [itex]f_{x(t)\hspace{1mm}t} = f_{t\hspace{1 mm}x(t)}[/itex] for f(x(t), t), I think the proof in the note works if I substitute c=x(a) and d=x(b).

I also think the theorem can be extended to [itex]f(x_1(t), x_2(t), ..., x_n(t), t)[/itex] if I imagine slicing the n dimensional space by a plane parallel to [itex]x_i x_j[/itex] plane (or [itex]x_i\hspace{1 mm}t[/itex] plane).

So I have [itex]f_{x_i x_j}=f_{x_j x_i}[/itex] and [itex]f_{x_i\hspace{1 mm}t}=f_{t\hspace{1 mm}x_i}[/itex] for [itex]f(x_1(t), ..., x_n(t), t)[/itex]. Is that okay?

By the way, I don't understand why the author of the note wrote [itex]f_{xy}(x,y)-f_{yx}(x,y)\ge \frac{h}{2}[/itex]. Is that arbitrary? Can I use h/3 instead for example?