- 6,031
- 3,160
Yes, that's why in #27, I said the "effective inductance" is zero (self minus mutual). But in the problem statement, it is mentioned that L2 is the "self" inductance of the coil, which is not zero.Charles Link said:but in the final tally, the inductance of L2L2 L_2 includes the mutual inductance of the component parts. L2=0L2=0 L_2=0 with your computation.
In that case, in the statement of the problem, the first time they mentioned ## L_2 ## they called it the "inductance of the coil", and the second time they called it the "self-inductance of the coil". This one is really splitting hairs with the use of the terms, when they themselves were rather careless in the use of the terms. I think they need to be much more clear in the statement of the problem.cnh1995 said:Yes, that's why in #27, I said the "effective inductance" is zero (self minus mutual). But in the problem statement, it is mentioned that L2 is the "self" inductance of the coil, which is not zero.
I agree. That's where I tripped at first.Charles Link said:In that case, in the statement of the problem, the first time they mentioned ## L_2 ## they called it the "inductance of the coil", and the second time they called it the "self-inductance of the coil". This one is really splitting hairs with the use of the terms, when they themselves were rather careless in the use of the terms. I think they need to be much more clear in the statement of the problem.