Complex analysis quick problem

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a problem in complex analysis involving an analytic function f(z) expressed in terms of its real and imaginary components, u(x, y) and v(x, y). The task is to show a relationship between the derivative of f with respect to z and the fluid velocity components derived from u.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the application of the Cauchy-Riemann equations and the definition of the derivative in the context of complex functions. There are attempts to manipulate the expression for df/dz and clarify the roles of the variables involved. Some participants express confusion about specific terms and seek clarification on the derivation steps.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants actively questioning each other's reasoning and clarifying definitions. Some have provided insights into the correct form of the derivative, while others are still grappling with the implications of their findings. There is no explicit consensus yet, but the dialogue is fostering a deeper exploration of the concepts involved.

Contextual Notes

There appears to be some confusion regarding the notation and the distinction between the functions V and v. Additionally, participants are navigating the complexities of applying the Cauchy-Riemann equations correctly in their derivations.

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Homework Statement



f(z) = u(x, y) + iv(x, y)
where z ≡ x + iy. Let the fluid velocity be V = ∇u. If f(z) is analytic, show that
df/dz = V_x − iV_y

Homework Equations



V_x = du/dx
V_y = idu/dy

The CR equations du/dx = dv/dy, du/dy = -dv/dx.

The Attempt at a Solution



I attempted to use this form for d/dz: d/dz = d/dx - i*d/dy.
This gave me df/dz = 2(V_x - iV_y) though.
 
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Just to clarify before I try to work this out, V and v are different functions, correct?
 
I have no idea how you could possibly have got that "2". Please show your work.
 
HallsofIvy said:
I have no idea how you could possibly have got that "2". Please show your work.

V = grad(u); so V_x = du/dx and V_y = du/dy

df/dz = (d/dx - id/dy)(u+iv) = du/dx + i dv/dx - i du/dy + dv/dy

Using the CR equations, du/dx = dv/dy and du/dy = -dv/dx.

So df/dz = 2(du/dx) -2i(du/dy) = 2(V_x - iV_y).
 
BiGyElLoWhAt said:
Just to clarify before I try to work this out, V and v are different functions, correct?

Yes, from the question it appears they are different functions.
 
N00813 said:

Homework Statement



f(z) = u(x, y) + iv(x, y)
where z ≡ x + iy. Let the fluid velocity be V = ∇u. If f(z) is analytic, show that
df/dz = V_x − iV_y

Homework Equations



V_x = du/dx
V_y = du/dy

fixed.

The CR equations du/dx = dv/dy, du/dy = -dv/dx.

The Attempt at a Solution



I attempted to use this form for d/dz: d/dz = d/dx - i*d/dy.

That is not an acceptable choice for d/dz.

If f = u + iv is analytic in a neighbourhood of z, then by definition the following limit exists, and is independent of how h \in \mathbb{C} approaches zero: <br /> \frac{df}{dz} = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(z + h) - f(z)}{h} = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(x + \mathrm{Re}(h), y + \mathrm{Im}(h)) - f(x,y)}{h}.<br /> Thus you can take h \in \mathbb{R} so that <br /> \frac{df}{dz} = \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} + i \frac{\partial v}{\partial x}, but instead you can take h \in i\mathbb{R} so that <br /> \frac{df}{dz} = -i\frac{\partial f}{\partial y} = -i\frac{\partial u}{\partial y} + \frac{\partial v}{\partial y} and since these are equal we must have <br /> \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial v}{\partial y}, \qquad<br /> \frac{\partial v}{\partial x} = -\frac{\partial u}{\partial y} which are the Cauchy-Riemann equations.

One also has <br /> \frac{df}{dz} = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(x + \mathrm{Re}(h), y + \mathrm{Im}(h)) - f(x,y)}{h}\\ = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(x + \mathrm{Re}(h), y + \mathrm{Im}(h)) - f(x, y + \mathrm{Im}(h))}{h} + \lim_{h \to 0}\frac{f(x, y + \mathrm{Im}(h)) - f(x,y)}{h} \\<br /> = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{\mathrm{Re}(h)}h \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} + \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{\mathrm{Im}(h)}h \frac{\partial f}{\partial y}.
 
pasmith said:
fixed.



That is not an acceptable choice for d/dz.

If f = u + iv is analytic in a neighbourhood of z, then by definition the following limit exists, and is independent of how h \in \mathbb{C} approaches zero: <br /> \frac{df}{dz} = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(z + h) - f(z)}{h} = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(x + \mathrm{Re}(h), y + \mathrm{Im}(h)) - f(x,y)}{h}.<br /> Thus you can take h \in \mathbb{R} so that <br /> \frac{df}{dz} = \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} + i \frac{\partial v}{\partial x}, but instead you can take h \in i\mathbb{R} so that <br /> \frac{df}{dz} = -i\frac{\partial f}{\partial y} = -i\frac{\partial u}{\partial y} + \frac{\partial v}{\partial y} and since these are equal we must have <br /> \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial v}{\partial y}, \qquad<br /> \frac{\partial v}{\partial x} = -\frac{\partial u}{\partial y} which are the Cauchy-Riemann equations.

One also has <br /> \frac{df}{dz} = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(x + \mathrm{Re}(h), y + \mathrm{Im}(h)) - f(x,y)}{h}\\ = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(x + \mathrm{Re}(h), y + \mathrm{Im}(h)) - f(x, y + \mathrm{Im}(h))}{h} + \lim_{h \to 0}\frac{f(x, y + \mathrm{Im}(h)) - f(x,y)}{h} \\<br /> = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{\mathrm{Re}(h)}h \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} + \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{\mathrm{Im}(h)}h \frac{\partial f}{\partial y}.

I looked over my notes again, and apparently d/dz = 1/2 (d/dx - i d/dy).

From here, that would suggest \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{\mathrm{Re}(h)}h = \frac{1}{2} and \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{\mathrm{Im}(h)}h= \frac{-i}{2}.

I can't think of how to get there, though.
 

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